J
Jerry_Marino
Guest
it is not a trick, the Bible teaches in Christ alone we find salvation, that He is the only way while the catholic church teaches otherwise.
I said changing the subject is a trick. You just did it again.it is not a trick, the Bible teaches in Christ alone we find salvation, that He is the only way while the catholic church teaches otherwise.
Hello,(Hope no one minds if I pop in…)
So… if Peter was only called to preach to the Jews, then Paul was wrong to rebuke him at Antioch…
Galatians 2:11-12
11 When Peter came to Antioch, I opposed him to his face, because he was clearly in the wrong.
12 Before certain men came from James, he used to eat with the Gentiles. But when they arrived, he began to draw back and separate himself from the Gentiles because he was afraid of those who belonged to the circumcision group.
So, evidently, since Peter was called to preach to the Jews, he was stepping out of his bounds by ministering to the Gentiles.
In other words, your proposition that Peter was called to minister exclusively to the Jews, Paul exclusively to the Gentiles is totally nonsensical, especially considering the Great Commission:
Matthew 28:16-20
16Then the eleven disciples went to Galilee, to the mountain where Jesus had told them to go.
17When they saw him, they worshiped him; but some doubted.
18Then Jesus came to them and said, “All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me.
19Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,
20and teaching them to obey everything I have commanded you. And surely I am with you always, to the very end of the age.”
ALL nations. Not just the Jews. And we know Peter was there, unless by “eleven disciples” Matthew means, “every disciple except Peter, including the corpse of Judas Iscariot.”
And all else aside, there was in fact a Jewish population in the city of Rome. According to the oh-so-dependable Wikipedia, at the time Caesar Augustus began his reign, there were over 7,000 Jews in the city of Rome (en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jewish_diaspora). So, it would not be so far-fetched anyway for Peter to go to Rome to minister to the Jews.
As for Romans 15:20, the epistle to the Romans was written in 57 or 58 A.D. Peter died in Rome sometime in the 60s A.D. What tells you that Peter could not have gone there later than when Paul wrote his letter?
I agree with you Peter and Cephas are the same person, but your questioning whether Peter spent any or much time in Rome is a good example why Sacred Tradition is so important to accurate Church history, proper exegesis of Scripture and a clear understanding of the truth of the Christian faith. Until fairly recently there has never been any question whatever of Peter’s time in Rome, his martyrdom there and his burial on the site of St. Peter’s basilica.SHW - are you suggesting that Cephas and Peter are 2 different people? If this Cephas is not Peter, could you please document exactly who this Cephas is?
Because we don’t. Do not put words into other people’s mouths. It’s disrespectful and stupid.yeah so why try earn your salvation
I agree that Cephas and Peter are the same name and that they both can be used to mean Peter the Apostle. However, that does not mean that every time these two names are used that they mean only Peter the Apostle.SHW - are you suggesting that Cephas and Peter are 2 different people? If this Cephas is not Peter, could you please document exactly who this Cephas is? I can look at John 1:42 and see that Peter means Cephas (Jesus said, “thou shalt be called Cephas, which is interpreted Peter.”), which would imply that both names can be used of the same person (much like Israel and Jacob can be used of the same Patriarch). (BTW - my source is the Douay Rheims version.)
talk of disrespectfulBecause we don’t. Do not put words into other people’s mouths. It’s disrespectful and stupid.
Why my friend would you stand on tradition after your statement,“However, the traditional practises of the church can change from to time ,as my complete catechism reference indicated”. The word of God never changes. Traditional and the Bible in equal regard? I don’t think so. RalphIt definitely seemed that you implied a conclusion by referencing this passage. I wasn’t the only one who took it this way.
I haven’t seen anyone push ‘other writings’ over Scripture in this thread. The Sacred Tradition being discussed comes from the words and teachings that Jesus Himself passed on to the Apostles. And that Tradition is not held ‘over’ Scripture, but in equal regard with it. The two can’t stand independently, but only together.
Again, ‘we Catholics’ are pushing the words and teachings of Christ Himself as Sacred Tradition. Together with Scripture, it forms the complete Word of God, which is actually Christ Himself. And that Word can’t and doesn’t change. However, the traditional practices of the Church can change from time to time, as my complete Catechism reference indicated.
rocketrob
This is grossly untrue. First of all nothing happened at Nicea untill the papal legates arrived. Only then was the Council opened. Secondly, Constantine paid for and provided for the council. But he asked Pope Sylvester to call the council which Sylvester did.Hi Sharp 11 and NHInsider,
There seems to be a little confusion about what the term “catholic” meant in the early church.
All the early “catholic” [universal in faith] churches existed independently of the one situated in Rome. Christian churches of both East and West were deemed to be “Catholic” if they held to the same orthodox set of beliefs, such as those decreed at Nicea.
The Nicene Creed as approved at the Council of Constantinople [381] says:
“We believe in…One Holy, Catholic, and Apostolic Church…and we look for the resurrection of the dead…”
The word “Catholic” here means “universal” and refers to the whole Christian church of East and West. Rome was only a minor player at Nicea as the overwhelming majority of Bishops in attendance came from the Greek East [about 300] rather than from the Latin West [7].
From the time that the primacy of the See of Rome was recognised by the Emperor Phocas in 607 AD, the terms “Roman Church” and “Catholic Church” have gradually become interchangeable in the West.
But for the first 600 years of Christianity, regardless of what certain individuals may have claimed, no See or Bishop was recognised by the universal [catholic] church as having any pre-dominance over another, as is evident from the First Council of Nicea, Canon 6:
“Let the ancient customs in Egypt, Libya, and Pentapolis prevail: that the Bishop of Alexandria have jurisdiction in all these, since the like is customary for the Bishop of Rome also. Likewise in Antioch and the other provinces, let the Churches retain their privileges…”
Absolutely not. He said “I am the truth,the life and the way, no one comes to the father but by Me” Ralphdid Jesus teach that one can find salvation other than Himself?
Hi Ralphy,Absolutely not. He said “I am the truth,the life and the way, no one comes to the father but by Me” Ralph
Because ‘traditional practices’ can include such things as the words of the liturgy, which is not doctrine or dogma, not eating meat on Friday, which is not doctrine or dogma, a celibate priesthood, which has not changed, but could if the Church wanted to change it and which is not doctrine or dogma. None of those things are ‘the word of God.’ They are traditional practices of the Church which the Church is free to change if the need arises. Sacred Tradition is another matter and you fail to make the distinction.Why my friend would you stand on tradition after your statement,“However, the traditional practises of the church can change from to time ,as my complete catechism reference indicated”.
I do think so. In fact, I’m certain of it. Yes, the word of God never changes. Your mistake is in thinking all tradition is defined dogma. It’s not. The Church is emphatic in what she declares definitively, either from the Chair of Peter (ex cathedra) or by the Magesterium, the bishops in council or, as is usual, both. The doctrines and dogmas of the Church have been part of the deposit of faith from the beginning. However, they are never declared dogmatically until they were challenged. Two examples are the Canon of Scripture, which was set by the Church in the 4th Century, but not declared dogma until the Council of Trent in the 16th Century after Luther threw out seven books of the OT; and the infallibility of the pope in matters of faith and morals, which was similarly believed but not defined until the authority of the pope was challenged centuries later.The word of God never changes. Traditional and the Bible in equal regard? I don’t think so.
Read 2 Tim 3:16-17 and you will see about scripture, (not tradition,which is the teaching of man).I follow the Bible because of John 12:44-50. My judgement will come from the written word of God,not by tradition. RalphIt is interesting how these threads go. On the one hand we are discussing the lack of scriptural support for Sola Scriptura, then we have moved to the lack of scriptural support for specific traditions, although the obvious issue is how we interpret scripture as support for the supposed Catholic traditions. It is so apparent that Sola Scriptura is not in scripture.
I see no Protestant band wagon saying with conviction, and essentially facing the implications of that issue. Yet when it comes to some Catholic tradition, they seem to be all over it with critical analysis.
This is very sad. So polarized. Don’t mind me but this does make me very sad that discussion really are just about winning an argument.
Many Blessings,
Doolin