I would expect that had the apostles taught the early fathers orally, there’d be no variance in understanding either, but there was. Why was that?
Individually ECFs could have erred (although for the most part they didn’t) nevertheless it was the Magisterium (all the bishops including the Pope) that decided and/or concluded what was and wasn’t doctrine. The ECFs individually did not have this power. Which begs the question as to how individuals like Luther, Calvin, Zwingli and Knox believed they had the power and/or authority to reject doctrines and then to go on to develop their own? Why did they not agree? Wasn’t sola scriptura supposed to unite, I mean at least then, you would think. Maybe they had different interpretations of SS too.
SS hasn’t failed, but is alive and well in those churches that truly adhere to it. And as far as the plethora of opinions, Paul states their necessity so that those who are approved may become manifest (1 Cor 11:19).
Please pray tell why are there so many interpretations of SS? Is not the Bible able to define for you what SS is? Wait, there is no mention of SS in the Bible?
And unlike Catholics you can’t even fall on Tradition to help you out.
They were a bunch of rascals, weren’t they, IYO?
Oh, I wouldn’t have been so politically correct if indeed it were my opinion.
That’s irrelevant to the fact presented.
How is it irrelevant, up until the printing press, almost nobody had their own personal bibles (they were too costly) and most could not read, therefore, how can the practice of sola scriptura make sense in the first century and onwards up until the reformation, if this was the case. If my relationship with Jesus depended upon the Word of God, which you state is the Bible alone, how if I did not own a bible or was not able to read could this make sense. God would have to be cruel to institute such a doctrine at a time (pentecost) when many could not read or owned scripture (in its entirety).
And God would send others to expound that truth outside of the church which failed to uphold it.
Where is this in Scripture? Is this part of the Tradition you hold to?
My point was that the teachings delivered by mouth did not vary from the teachings delivered by writing.
Catholics do not believe that Tradition and Scripture are mutually exclusive (they are similar yet not completely so), however, Tradition does expound on matters which are not delineated (or at times alluded to) in Scriptures. For example, we know the first christians baptized using the Trinitarian formula, that they believed in the real presence in the Eucharist, that they thought the use of contraceptives was a sin, that Mary was assumed, that the act of abortion (which was never **literally **stated in the Bible) was evil, and many other things you perceive Catholics are wrong in believing.
That the teachings delivered by mouth did not vary from the teachings delivered by writing.
You think basically that Tradition is unnecessary as all is contained in within Scriptures, however, we know that John states otherwise. John 21: 24-25.
And also why did Paul command the Church/es to hold fast to Traditions if they did not contain much truth which would help in our interpretation of scriptures?
You don’t understand. I’ll post my statement to which you’re responding again:I’ve read it. In fact, I have a friend who
wrote a book about it.
No I do, understood.