Sola Scriptura - unifier?

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The failure of the Catholic Church at that time to maintain continuity with the Tradition of the early Church was precisely the problem.
I will respond to this they way you would to me. Is this your assertion or do you actually have evidence for this?
The bigger question is, how do English non-Catholic translations translate Romans 3:28?
For the thousand time…Based on their own traditions.

Not seeing where you are going here.

Did you honestly think I would have any other response to this question?
Obviously, Luther was being honest in his explanation of his translation.
Totally agree never said he wasn’t honest in HIS private interpretation of that verse.

God Bless
 
I quickly read what was posted by Jon and thought it comprehensive enough, and covered similar points that C catechism did.
 
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Totally agree never said he wasn’t honest in HIS private interpretation of that verse.
Any wrong interpretation is “private”, if done by a lay person, or clergy or a council or a pope. Any interpretation that is contrary to Holy Spirit intent is “private”.
 
Any wrong interpretation is “private”, if done by a lay person, or clergy or a council or a pope. Any interpretation that is contrary to Holy Spirit intent is “private”.
OK so what does this mean? So are you saying every time you tell one of us we are wrong here that you know for certain the Holy Spirit’s intent?

How exactly would any of us lay people know wether or not any one’s interpretation is “private”?

Basically, if we are just claiming we have the Holy Spirit and know what He intends, when in essence we don’t, even though we insist over and over that we do, in the end our interpretation might actually be contrary to what the Holy Spirit actually intended.

This is exactly the point I am trying to show Jon. Yes an interpretation contrary to what the Holy Spirit intends is a true statement. However, the statement is meaningless unless you define how we can know His intent in the first place. And please don’t point to the Scriprutes that is a circular argument.

In the same way the reformers statement about “norm of Tradition” is meaningless unless they define what “tradition” they are referring to.

God Bless
 
So what then does it mean when it says tradition?
I would have to reread, otherwise everything you take it to mean, except it is not fallible, does not have bishop of Rome above other bishops juristicionally, is not automatically , unconditionally speaking the Word of God, and is subservient to His Word/Writ.
 
I will respond to this they way you would to me. Is this your assertion or do you actually have evidence for this?
The very existence of the Reformation. Even the Catholic Catechism makes reference to those on both sides being to blame.
Further, if one thinks the Church teaching Occamism and Biel in Central Europe at the time wasn’t a problem, well then okay. Luther wasn’t taught Thomism.
For the thousand time…Based on their own traditions.

Not seeing where you are going here.

Did you honestly think I would have any other response to this question?
I was going right to the heart of the falsehood that Luther “changed” Romans 3:28 because of his theology.
Totally agree never said he wasn’t honest in HIS private interpretation of that verse.
I didn’t know that how Germans spoke the German language was Luther’s theology. 😏
 
I would have to reread, otherwise everything you take it to mean, except it is not fallible, does not have bishop of Rome above other bishops juristicionally, is not automatically , unconditionally speaking the Word of God, and is subservient to His Word/Writ.
Sorry I don’t follow what you are saying here. It seems to be a bunch of words on a page that come to no definitive conclusion, allowing the reader to define tradition an way they like.

I ask the same question over and over again, but everyone continues to ignore what I ask.

Someone has to do the interpretation of “His Word/Writ” so in the end it boils down to…who’s interpretation is the official interpretation (of His Word/Writ) that everything else here subservient to?

God Bless
 
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MT1926:
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JonNC:
The meaning of the “sola” in sola scriptura means scripture alone is the final norm.
The norm that norms but is not normed.
But that is the part that makes no sense. How can scripture “ALONE” be the final norm?
Read what The Lutheran reformers wrote. I posted it.
It means that no other norm from Tradition should be considered equal with scripture. Not the councils, not the ECF’s, not even the reformers themselves.
Please explain to us again, how scripture was “equal” to Tradition in the year 2AD, 20AD, 33AD, 34AD, 50AD, 100AD, or at any other time before the writing existed, or before the Church canonized those writings.

In my opinion, you have an obligation to explain this, since we are going around in circles to avoid it.

And another note is, Scripture is not “equal to” anything, nor is Tradition “equal to” Scripture. They are part of the living organism that is the Church. It’s like saying the brain is equal to the heart. They are both unique aspects of a living organism.

And apparently, you believe the Church was less than a Church when Christ walked the earth, before the NT was written.
You brought an elephant into the room.
 
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The very existence of the Reformation. Even the Catholic Catechism makes reference to those on both sides being to blame.
This response sounds exactly like what @goout said when he was making a comparison between a living breathing Christ (the Word) and how the Scriptures need to be a living breathing Word through the Church.

You were unwilling to accept what @goout said why do you believe what you say here should considered evidence and not just your conjecture?
Further, if one thinks the Church teaching Occamism and Biel in Central Europe at the time wasn’t a problem, well then okay.
Occam and Biel were Catholic theologians, you seem pretty smart, do you honestly believe these guys were conveying official Catholic Church doctrine and dogma?

Yes I totally agree it was a major problem, they went to far in exaggerating the value of good works in the matter of justification that the efficiency and dignity of Divine grace was unduly relegated to the background.
Luther wasn’t taught Thomism.
Is this suppose to be some kind of defense? It seems you are saying that since he wasn’t taught Thomism he can’t held accountable for his actions? That’s a weird defense.
I was going right to the heart of the falsehood that Luther “changed” Romans 3:28 because of his theology.
Wasn’t accusing him of changing it was trying point out that by adding the word allien he “changed” the (“1500 year norm of Tradition”) interpretation of that verse to his own private interpretation.
I didn’t know that how Germans spoke the German language was Luther’s theology. 😏
So are you saying this is how Germans spoke and is how Germans translate that verse to this very day. 🤔

You seem to be an evidence guy, expecting everyone else to jump through hoops providing you with the evidence.

I’m asking of you nothing more than you are asking of everyone else on this forum.

God Bless
 
Please explain to us again, how scripture was “equal” to Tradition in the year 2AD, 20AD, 33AD, 34AD, 50AD, 100AD, or at any other time before the writing existed, or before the Church canonized those writings.
Please explain to me where I said it was. In fact, I was very clear that it is a post apostolic era practice. But if this is the criteria, perhaps we can talk about other ecclesiastical practices that were not found in that time.
And another note is, Scripture is not “equal to” anything, nor is Tradition “equal to” Scripture. They are part of the living organism that is the Church. It’s like saying the brain is equal to the heart. They are both unique aspects of a living organism.
In terms of the hermeneutical principle of sola scriptura, you would be incorrect in that. But if you wish to talk about inequalities in the living community of the Church, we can compare notes.
And apparently, you believe the Church was less than a Church when Christ walked the earth, before the NT was written.
You brought an elephant into the room
Please reference where I have said this. Otherwise, please don’t misrepresent my views.
 
OK so what does this mean? So are you saying every time you tell one of us we are wrong here that you know for certain the Holy Spirit’s intent?
No, private or non private interpretation has little to do with certainty, or acquiescing it. Private is simply understanding something of Writ that isn’t so. It is apart, or private from the Holy Spirit…like He was not present in the thought process…like a private party…just the person (s) and Writ…the Spirit willing but unable to participate in error because of His perfect nature.

Now certainty is another matter, that indeed can be had, to which I know is what you are asking, and will answer soon.( requires more thought and precision, being of utmost importance…lol, answering easier stuff first)
 
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Please explain to us again, how scripture was “equal” to Tradition in the year 2AD, 20AD, 33AD, 34AD, 50AD, 100AD, or at any other time before the writing existed, or before the Church canonized those writings.
Apostolic oral teaching is the Word of God, the teachings of Jesus Christ as given the apostles personally, and brought to rembrance by the Holy Ghost. Don’t quite see that as “tradition”. Tradition is how the church responds to His Word…so we meet on such and such a day, and do such and such a thing ( read scripture, letters, sing songs, break bread) we baptize in this fashion, we do remembrance of last supper in this fashion, we cease Judaizing/ circumcising, we establish church ministries and offices, we take charitable donations for the church needy, they preach in temple and in homes and on hills, we love and forgive others because He first loved and forgave us, etc, etc…

And let us not belittle the Word of God from OT, that was indeed used in preaching to the first church, which was Jewish. Everything the apostles and Christ taught was biblical, even fullfilling all first coming promises. I mean Christ is the Messiah, born of a people as described in the Books, “as it was written”.

Scripture was the norm of the authenticating the message of Christianity, just as miracles were the sign of authenticity of His preachers.
 
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No dofferent than respecting and understanding the CC defining tradition the way they liked.
Not seeing where you are going with this reply here. No one is talking about trying to defend Catholic tradition here. The conversation is about what does the word Tradition mean when the reformers say"norm of Tradition".

Never said they were wrong. After all how could I say their definition is wrong when they never gave it in the first place.

God Bless
 
Now certainty is another matter, that indeed can be had, to which I know is what you are asking, and will answer soon.( requires more thought and precision, being of utmost importance…lol, answering easier stuff first)
That’s good because I am scratching my head trying to understand what you posted here?

I am willing to take full blame here. Just have patience with me because the way you write here is not the way I was taught to converse with others.

Like you say…
Private is simply understanding something of Writ that isn’t so.
Is this definition of private part of your church tradition? Because the definition of private means belonging to a particular person or group.

How do you come to the conclusion that private means interpreting without the Holy Spirit. Not to mention how do you know in the first place if the Holy Spirit is present or not?

Sorry not following your theology here.

God Bless
 
And another note is, Scripture is not “equal to” anything, nor is Tradition “equal to” Scripture. They are part of the living organism that is the Church. It’s like saying the brain is equal to the heart. They are both unique aspects of a living organism.
And we have one head, one cornerstone, and then foundation of the apostles, to which generations of saints have been added as living stones. I beg to differ if one thinks the generations after are as normative, even infallibly,/unconditionally, as the head and His apostles , His Word.
 
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Thank you, not sure exactly what you mean by authority, for it can come in a variety of ways
I said, “…that is, people.” In this case, Moses, Aaron, the High Priest, the Judges God “raised up.” There was no Scripture, that is “the Old Testament” for people to interpret. Even among the religious leaders, there was no understanding of a canon of Scripture until the Pharisees decided they need to set a canon down, specifically excluding Christian Jews and with a clear bias (as Pharisees) against Christianity. The next closest thing we have is the Septuagint, which was never canonized, but simply an academic endeavor. However, it is notable that this is the text Jesus used, or seems to have, since his quotes are from that particular translation.
 
How would the Catholic Church go about “ratifying” a relatively “new” tradition today (assuming that it’s even possible)? Said another way - how would existing Tradition be modified? For example - are there priestly committees that are formed to continuously review and study the collection of Tradition?
 
How would the Catholic Church go about “ratifying” a relatively “new” tradition today (assuming that it’s even possible)? Said another way - how would existing Tradition be modified? For example - are there priestly committees that are formed to continuously review and study the collection of Tradition?
They wouldn’t say they’re creating new tradition; they’d say they’re formalizing an improved or a clarified understanding of existing tradition. For example, formalizing the dogma of Mary’s Assumption in the 1900s. That’s now formally, rather than informally, part of Catholic tradition, but they wouldn’t say that it’s new.
 
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