D
Della
Guest
I don’t know that I could find an explicit definition from the CCC for you. But, if we consider this logically, it’s only reasonable. When Jesus called St. Paul, he identified himself with the Church to the point of saying, “Why are you persecuting me?” Not “Why are you persecuting my people [or] my Church?”Is this the official RCC stance? That the word of God, The Bible, is synonymous with the church? I don’t really see how that is possible, as one is a collection of manuscripts divinely inspired, and the other is a congregation of people… perhaps I’m being too literal? Is there any mention of this, say, in the catechism?
Jesus is the Word of God. The Bible is the writings of men inspired by the Holy Spirit, and so we call it the word of God. But, Jesus is the source of the written word of God, even the OT since the Father works in and through his Son in all things through the power of the Holy Spirit.
This being the case, how could Jesus, the Church and his words not be one? I don’t mean that they aren’t separate things in their physical sense, but in reality, they are one, as the Father is one with the Son and they are one with the Holy Spirit although they are three persons.
Everything has its beginning and ending in God who has given all authority to his Son so that he might be all in all in all things. Does that make sense or did I lose you through my poor explanation?