Sola Scriptura...

  • Thread starter Thread starter Truth_Faith13
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
The Holy Spirit assisted them in professing that which God wanted professed and keeping silent on that which God wanted to be kept silent.
PRmerger: I had not thought of that; keeping silent on that which God wanted to be kept silent. After giving some thought to what you stated I have to agree with you as it seems to me to be quite correct in that is a way the Holy Spirit works so that God’s Word is not distorted or becomes contrary to what God does want to say through the Apostles.
 
You can make a case for Aristotle, I guess.

But you can actually go back to 1600BC and study the Edwin Smith Papyrus for a more purely scientific methodology.

Aristotle introduced empiricism and deductive reasoning to the Papyrus already established formula.
Very interesting! The papyrus illustrates a learning-by-doing method to actual problems without any formal philosophy being proposed. Aristotle, by contrast, being curious without problems he wanted to solve, observed different types of creatures and noticed certain patterns that led to inductive conclusions about those creatures. He then formed general hypotheses based on his limited conclusions. Testing those general hypotheses lends itself to deductive theories that can be applied universally.

Thus Charles Darwin and Alfred Russell Wallace noticed phenomena that exhibited certain patterns. By inductive reasoning, they began to envision a mechanism by which these phenomena could be explained. Along came, Mendel, who showed that purposely mixing of genes from different varieties of the pea, produced a wide variety of seedlings, some of which succeeded and others that failed. Bingo! Natural selection and survival of the fittest.
 
No. How is my logic incorrect?
I read this wrong. Science major I am not. As ALL mammals make milk (even if they lay an egg and don’t have nipples they still make milk like the platypus) and mammals are the only animal that can make milk the logic works (my bad).

All female mammals can make milk.
Cows make milk.

Therefore, cows are mammals.

I’m used to reading something more along the line of:

All female mammals make milk
Cows have female mammals
->Therefore, Cows can make milk.

PnP
 
I read this wrong. Science major I am not. As ALL mammals make milk (even if they lay an egg and don’t have nipples they still make milk like the platypus) and mammals are the only animal that can make milk the logic works (my bad).

All female mammals can make milk.
Cows make milk.

Therefore, cows are mammals.

I’m used to reading something more along the line of:

All female mammals make milk
Cows have female mammals
->Therefore, Cows can make milk.

PnP
When you say that all female mammals can make milk, you have not excluded the possibility that other creatures can make milk.
If a cow can make milk, why couldn’t it be a non-mammal?

A better way would be to say that only mammals make milk. Cows make milk. Therefore cows are mammals.
 
How about this one?

All mammals are animals.
Humans are mammals.
Therefore humans are animals.
 
Quote:
Originally Posted by Nicea325
As to say even in matters of salvation?
No, I would not say that is the case.
Okay, I am a bit confused on your answers and your position. So are you saying an author of the OT or NT wrote infallible material and fallible material all in the same book/epistle (i.e. Matthew)?
 
When you say that all female mammals can make milk, you have not excluded the possibility that other creatures can make milk.
If a cow can make milk, why couldn’t it be a non-mammal?

A better way would be to say that only mammals make milk. Cows make milk. Therefore cows are mammals.
What other creatures make milk besides mammals? :confused:

I like your logic above,

🙂
 
What other creatures make milk besides mammals? :confused:

I like your logic above,

🙂
None, that I know of.

But he’s right – this shows that a syllogism may be unsound even though the conclusions may be true.
 
It seems to me that if we believe that Jesus is infallible in what he taught, preached said and did, hen it would stand to reason that the Apostles when they were teaching, preaching, were also infallible because they were saying the same things that Jesus said and preached and taught. Jesus said or told the Apostles that he would send the Holy Spirit to remind them of all that he9Jesus) preached and taught them, This then would mean that they were infallible in their teaching and preaching. This was passed on from Peter down the line to those succeeding Peter so that what was taught was always what Our Lord taught, preached and said and did. Otherwise how in the world would we know what is true of God’s word and what it means if not by the mystery of infallibility given by the Holy Spirit to the successor of Peter. We do not know how that is done but only that the Holy Spirit brings infallibility to Gods Words in the form of man’s word when it comes to faith and morals.
 
Hi Jon,

Thanks for your response.
I don’t know about impossible, since nothing is impossible for God. Of course, for a Lutheran, there is no “right” of individual interpretation when it comes to doctrine, but all that said, the divisions in the Church prior to the Reformation are at least twice as long in duration, so we all have that sin to confess.
It is odd to me that according to the Lutheran church ‘there is no right of individual interpretation when it comes to doctrine’, because that is exactly the ‘right’ that Luther used to begin his Rebellion. Exactly. If you deny Luther’s PI, then you admitting that the ‘means’ that he used to Revolt against the Church was wrong.

Now you can say that ‘we all have that sin to confess’, but that does not apply to those who are still in communion with the Church. It might apply to the EOC, but it does not apply to Roman Catholics.

Furthermore, there is also the degree to which the various schisms have departed from the Truth. I would suggest to you that the degree of departure from the Truth within various sects can be measured statistically and also that denominalization is a direct result of the lack of truth that was taken from the historic Church to use in the ‘new church’. After all, falsehoods only lead to more of the same. The less truth a schism starts with (Truth from the Church that Christ founded of course), then the faster denominilization will occur.

As an example, in about a thousand years, the EOC has fractured into (I think) 17 different doctrinally autonomous communions. On the other hand, in less than 500 years, Protestantism has ruptured into an almost uncountable number of denominations. (I hesitate to offer a number because people always take the opportunity to challenge the number, thereby pretending to address the point.) I would suggest that the reason that the EOC is tremendously ‘fracture proof’ compared to Protestantism, is that it did NOT begin with Sola Scriptura or it’s evil twin, the Right to Private Interpretation (SS+PI), BOTH of which are creations of Martin Luther.
Certainly I would agree that an ecumenical council is, and should be considered authoritative.
You say that Jon, but I would suggest that, at this point, neither the EOC nor the Lutherans will follow an Ecumenical Council. You will not follow Trent, and you will not follow many of the pre-Reformation Ecumenical Councils. Remember, in order for this to work, everyone who attends would have to leave their egos at the door, and agree to follow the decisions of the Council.

As with all Councils, the attendees would pray to the Holy Spirit to guide them such that they are precluded from teaching error. Of course this presumes that the Holy Spirit could and would provide such guidance. Do you think that the Spirit can and would provide this guidance for the Council?

Do you think that Lutherans would agree to such a thing and be willing to attend? If not, do you think they should be willing to?
Understand, of course, that some protestant groups would not attend under any circumstances, that would complicate things.

Let me see here, the CC has 51% of the vote - convenient? 😃
First of all, there will always be heresy because there will always be those who are unwilling to even consider the views of ‘the other’. Do you think ANY Protestant groups would be willing to attend?

Are you suggesting that the Lutheran’s should have more than 3 of the 100 votes?

Are you suggesting that the Catholics should have less than 51?

Those numbers would guarantee that Christians would be represented proportional to their numbers. What other way would there be to do it?
This isn’t a new idea, Tim, and I’d be all for it. In fact, veteran members here at CAF will tell you that, for this Lutheran, even if the EO and CC agreed and came into unity, that would be enough for me. I also think it would put pressure on other particularly liturgical, sacramental communions to reconsider the necessity of staying outside of such a dramatic union.
Jon, of course this is not a new idea. This in fact is an almost 2000 year old idea. This is the way that doctrinal disputes were settled for almost a thousand years. It breaks down when people refuse to attend or refuse to abide by the decisions of the Councils.

God Bless You Jon, Topper
 
Two different questions:

Was Peter capable of teaching wrong things?

Did Peter teach wrong things?

Even if we were to grant that Peter never taught wrong things, historically speaking, that doesn’t take away the capability to teach wrong things. My car can carry me from point A to point B, but that didn’t take away the chance that it could have broken down right in the middle of the trip.

The question, as others have pointed out, is about God and His promises to individuals and to the church. Did He promise that certain individuals and the magisterium were incapable of false teaching?
 
None, that I know of.

But he’s right – this shows that a syllogism may be unsound even though the conclusions may be true.
Yes, if the premise(s) are false or not entirely true the conclusion may appear to be valid, but in essence the conclusion is false because it was drawn from a false premise.
 
Two different questions:

Was Peter capable of teaching wrong things?

Did Peter teach wrong things?

Even if we were to grant that Peter never taught wrong things, historically speaking, that doesn’t take away the capability to teach wrong things. My car can carry me from point A to point B, but that didn’t take away the chance that it could have broken down right in the middle of the trip.

The question, as others have pointed out, is about God and His promises to individuals and to the church. Did He promise that certain individuals and the magisterium were incapable of false teaching?
Peter being a human being, was capable of being wrong in things outside of his teaching since he taught only what Jesus taught he would be infallible in his teachings. I rather doubt from reading of the Gospel accounts that Peter would even think of wanting to teach something different from what Jesus taught him, the question would be why would Peter even want to and what would he have to gain by it? I think from the Gospels accounts that Peter was a very religious man and it would never occur to him to teach something that was not true. It seems to me that the Holy Spirit descended on all of the Apostles and Jesus did say to them that He would send the Holy Spirit to remind them of all that he had taught them. So in the end, its a moot point. To say otherwise is to dispute what Jesus taught and Scripture.
 
Two different questions:

Was Peter capable of teaching wrong things?

Did Peter teach wrong things?

Even if we were to grant that Peter never taught wrong things, historically speaking, that doesn’t take away the capability to teach wrong things. My car can carry me from point A to point B, but that didn’t take away the chance that it could have broken down right in the middle of the trip.

The question, as others have pointed out, is about God and His promises to individuals and to the church. Did He promise that certain individuals and the magisterium were incapable of false teaching?
Jesus told Peter individually:
Mt 16:19 I will give you the keys of the kingdom of heaven, and whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven."

and then, the Apostles collectively:
Mt 18:18 Truly, I say to you, whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven.

So, when Peter (or his successor) individually, or the Magisterium collectively, teach something on faith or morals that they intend to be binding on the whole Church for all time, Christ is the guarantor.

He’s the one who has promised to sign the check they wrote with their teachings.

And, so, He will ensure that they don’t teach error.
 
Jesus told Peter individually:
Mt 16:19 I will give you the keys of the kingdom of heaven, and whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven."

and then, the Apostles collectively:
Mt 18:18 Truly, I say to you, whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven.

So, when Peter (or his successor) individually, or the Magisterium collectively, teach something on faith or morals that they intend to be binding on the whole Church for all time, Christ is the guarantor.

He’s the one who has promised to sign the check they wrote with their teachings.

And, so, He will ensure that they don’t teach error.
You stated it better then I could ever do. Great post!
 
Jesus told Peter individually:
Mt 16:19 I will give you the keys of the kingdom of heaven, and whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven."

and then, the Apostles collectively:
Mt 18:18 Truly, I say to you, whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven.

So, when Peter (or his successor) individually, or the Magisterium collectively, teach something on faith or morals that they intend to be binding on the whole Church for all time, Christ is the guarantor.

He’s the one who has promised to sign the check they wrote with their teachings.

And, so, He will ensure that they don’t teach error.
From the Catholic position, it is as though God gave Peter a blank check and agreed to back whatever was written. That’s not what Protestants such as me see in scripture. Just as a small example, the binding and loosing are for things already bound in Heaven; whatever is bound on earth would have already been bound in Heaven, the Heaven bit comes before the earth bit. If the teaching of the faith were guaranteed, there would have been no need for the multiple warnings about false teachers, and Jesus would not have to ask if He will find faith on the earth when He returns.
 
You’re mischaracterizing the argument. This is the way I see it:

A: People who wrote the Bible made no mistakes through the inspiration of the Holy Spirit
B: People who are speaking or writing under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit can make no mistakes
C: Therefore the people who wrote the Bible were infallible.
 
Being without error is not the same as being incapable of error. Why is this concept so difficult?
Because you keep talking about of both sides of your mouth.

You say that the inspired authors wrote without error.

But you won’t say that the inspired authors are infallible.

That’s like saying that mammals make milk.

And cows make milk.

But you won’t say that cows are mammals.

It’s just so :whacky: to me.
 
To underscore the fact that leaders of the church are fallible, Paul says that even if he preaches something other than the original gospel message, that he is accursed.
That’s nothing but a testament to Sacred Tradition. For one has to know the kerygma first in order to discern whether something has divorced itself from this teaching.
It is plain that he, and other leaders, are capable of error and this is one of his primary warnings.
So that, of course, prompts the question: where did he preach something that was erroneous? And how do we know that it’s erroneous?
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top