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spina1953
Guest
To my way of thinking, Sola Scriptura is not just a dead horse but the hidden author of chaos.
Because INDIVIDUALS (or inDUHviduals for those who appreciate Scott Adams) within the Church can and do err. I hope you can see the difference.Why then are we constantly constantly warned of false teachers in the church?
At what point does their teaching reflect the historic understanding of what the Bible teaches about infant Baptism? Further, as you and I have discussed, the notion that infant baptism is even only implicit is debatable. So, regardless what they teach, or what they say sola scriptura is, it seems scripture, as witnessed by Tradition, confirms infant baptism.Okay. Let’s put this into practice, shall we?
You and a close Baptist friend are both sola scripturists. The subject of infant baptism comes up. Naturally, you both appeal to scripture as the final norm.
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It is not at all clear, for example, that Jesus intended to there to be a hierarchy with bishops and priests.Not at all. Scripture is clear that Jesus intended to found a visible church with a hierarchy that could be identified. I’ll keep my powder dry on that for now.![]()
This is witnessed as well by Jerome who indicated that bishops were a subsequent development.Tit 1:5-7 DRB For this cause I left thee in Crete: that thou shouldest set in order the things that are wanting and shouldest ordain priests in every city, as I also appointed thee: (6) If any be without crime, the husband of one wife. having faithful children, not accused of riot or unruly. (7) For a bishop must be without crime, as the steward of God: not proud, not subject to anger, nor given to wine, no striker, not greedy of filthy lucre:
Jerome (Letter 146)For when the apostle clearly teaches that presbyters are the same as bishops… And lest any should in a spirit of contention argue that there must then have been more bishops than one in a single church, there is the following passage which clearly proves a bishop and a presbyter to be the same. Writing to Titus the apostle says: “For this cause left I thee in Crete, that thou shouldest set in order the things that are wanting, and ordain presbyters in every city, as I had appointed thee… When subsequently one presbyter was chosen to preside over the rest, this was done to remedy schism and to prevent each individual from rending the church of Christ by drawing it to himself.
Apparently you lack the understanding of development-no offense. Protestants expect everything to be clearly explained in the Bible. Do you have anu issues with the NT canon? No where is it mentioned at all.It is not at all clear, for example, that Jesus intended to there to be a hierarchy with bishops and priests.
This is witnessed as well by Jerome who indicated that bishops were a subsequent development.
- In the New Testament the Greek word for priest is never used to describe Christian clergy. It is only used to described the priesthood of all believers. The clergy are deacons, elders and overseers. The last two offices, which the Catholic Church has differentiated as priests and bishops, were the same office is made clear in Paul’s letter to Titus.
Jerome (Letter 146)
ccel.org/ccel/schaff/npnf206.v.CXLVI.html
- Paul wrote to 7 different to churches. In only one of his letters does he address the clergy. This is in Philippians where he mentions overseers and deacons. Note that the overseers was plural indicating more than one in the city. The failure to address the clergy in each letter could be taken to indicate these offices had not been appointed in each church.
- In his various letters, Ignatius refers to only bishops and deacons. No mention of separate priests.
Don’t know.#485 post looked pretty good.Really? Then tell us all who has the “official” definition of SS? Name the church who decided?
The context was that I was a dead horse,out of gas, on this subject ,hibernating, temporary burn out-as you said elsewhere , me a mere finite human, and I would say flawed in all ways. You all deserve my best, and when physically or mentally or spiritually weak,i must repose for awhile. Certainly SS is not a dead horse,as the thread marches easily on.Exactly! SS is a dead horse because it has yet been defended by Truth.
You seem to be forgetting what you are trying to do. You are trying to prove the Bible is inspired from historical evidence. That part of what is said in Scripture is shown to be historical, does not mean that everything it says is accurate so we do not have to consider everything it tell us He says is true at this stage in the proof. There are other examples of people being raised from the dead in Scripture without them being God. For example, Elijah raised the widow’s son Many would also question the historicity of the Resurrection. If it can be firmly established historically, why is everyone not Christian?Jesus claimed to be God, and He promised to rise from the dead. Since He did rise, we have to consider ALL of His other claims (such as being God) and promises to be true, also, since God cannot lie. One of those promises was to build a single Church to which He would give His own authority to speak in His name.
Again at this point you have not proved what Jesus promised is accurately recorded in Scripture so you cannot assume it as part of your proof. As well, saying it stands to reason is really just presenting your interpretation of what Jesus promised. Jesus gave authority to His apostles. He does not say they can pass on the same authority to successors. As I pointed out He gave the apostles authority to heal. They also raised the dead. Do the bishops and priests of the Catholic Church have this authority? If not why does it stand to reason that they have any of the authority given to the apostles. Healing and raising the dead are quite visible displays. Why is the authority of the Church now only in things that cannot be visibly verified or proved?Not at all. Since Jesus gave the Church the authority to speak in His name, and Jesus cannot err, it stands to reason that the Church cannot err in His name, either
Is there anyone who can meet this requirement now or can show direct appointment from Jesus like Paul?.Act 1:21-22 DRB Wherefore of these men who have companied with us, all the time that the Lord Jesus came in and went out among us, (22) Beginning from the baptism of John, until the day wherein he was taken up from us, one of these must be made a witness with us of his resurrection.
Of course there is a difference between the Bible and the Iliad. What I am pointing out is that the method you are trying to use to prove the inspiration of Scripture can be applied in the same way. Some things in the Bible can be shown to be historically true so you say we can accept everything it says. I am saying that some things in the Iliad can be shown to be historically true. By your reasoning we should therefore be able to able to accept the rest of what it says is true.Sure. There is no difference between the Bible and Illiad whatsoever. This every grade school boy knows well.![]()
Again you cannot rely on the accuracy of what the Bible says Jesus’ promises are until you have proved that it is inspired. If we accept as proven that Jesus did arise that still does not prove He claimed to be God. And again there is the problem of interpreting what the promises mean. You are Catholic because your interpretation agrees with the Church’s interpretation but that still depends on your interpretation of what is said. If your interpretation did not agree with the Catholic Church’s, which many people’s does not, you would not be a Catholic.If we can rely on Jesus’ promises because He has proven Himself to be God by rising from the dead, then we can deduce from the totality of his teachings and promises concerning the Church that it cannot err.
the first bishops were the twelve apostles. For sure Christ knew what he was doing.It is not at all clear, for example, that Jesus intended to there to be a hierarchy with bishops and priests.
St Ignatius refers not only to bishops, priest and deacons, but the proper Eucharist, the Real Presence of Christ, not a symbolic belief invented some 1,500 years later by breaking from the apostolic faith and the literal words of Jesus in John 6 understood by Catholic and Orthodox alike for 2,000 years.In his various letters, Ignatius refers to bishops and deacons. No mention of separate priests.
Well, there were only 13 people at the Last Supper.It is not at all clear, for example, that Jesus intended to there to be a hierarchy with bishops and priests.
Sy,Again you cannot rely on the accuracy of what the Bible says Jesus’ promises are until you have proved that it is inspired. .
Hi Jon,Tradition, then, is a witness to the truth of scripture.
Jon
Yes he did mention presbyters but this is not the Greek word for priest. The Greek for priest is hiereus. The English word priest is derived from the Greek word presbuteros but the meaning of the Greek is elder, not priest. In any event, he equates the presbyters with the apostles. He equates a bishop with God.the first bishops were the twelve apostles. For sure Christ knew what he was doing.
And we can read what the early Church wrote about about the hierarchy, Catholic bishops included. Presbuteros in Greek means Priest
St Ignatius refers not only to bishops, priest and deacons, but the proper Eucharist, the Real Presence of Christ, not a symbolic belief invented some 1,500 years later by breaking from the apostolic faith and the literal words of Jesus in John 6 understood by Catholic and Orthodox alike for 2,000 years.
ccel.org/ccel/schaff/anf01.v.iii.vi.html… while your bishop presides in the place of God, and your presbyters in the place of the assembly of the apostles…
ccel.org/ccel/schaff/anf01.v.v.ix.htmlRemember in your prayers the Church in Syria, which now has God for its shepherd, instead of me. Jesus Christ alone will oversee it, and your love [will also regard it
Because individuals can teach falsely. The Church cannot.Why then are we constantly constantly warned of false teachers in the church?
Paul says, “But even if we or an angel from heaven should preach a gospel other than the one we preached to you, let them be under God’s curse!” (Galatians 1:8) This is a stern warning not to deviate from the (oral) Tradition that he has handed on to the Galatians, and while he is speaking theoretically here, the Holy Spirit did not actually allow him to teach false doctrine.Why does Paul say that even he, the Apostle Paul, is capable of teaching a false gospel and if he does so, let himself be damned?
Peter withdrew from eating with the Gentiles due to pressure from the circumcision group under the direction of James. So much for the “brother” of the Lord, the great leader of the Jerusalem church. But Peter did not formally teach others to do the same. The Catholic Church does not define infallibility as “teaching by example”. Jesus told his followers that they MUST obey the Pharisees because they sat in Moses’ seat. He warned them not to practice what they DID. So, their teaching, not their actions, was authoritative. Same with Peter.Why did Peter fail in teaching properly by his actions, and Paul have to correct him?
You’ve answered your own question; individuals - even large groups of them, may fall into error. The Church as a whole may not.Why did God have to go after the 7 churches in Revelation individually?
A bit of rhetorical hyperbole perhaps? For He also said, “the gates of hell will not prevail against it” meaning that the Church would not be overcome.Why did Jesus wonder if He would find faith on the Earth at His second coming?
Bishop, Priest and DeaconIt is not at all clear, for example, that Jesus intended to there to be a hierarchy with bishops and priests.
Don’t know.#485 post looked pretty good.
Sy, do I understand then that you disagree with the catholic.com tract that I linked to? It saysYes he did mention presbyters but this is not the Greek word for priest. The Greek for priest is hiereus. The English word priest is derived from the Greek word presbuteros but the meaning of the Greek is elder, not priest. In any event, he equates the presbyters with the apostles. He equates a bishop with God.
In the apostolic age, the terms for these offices were still somewhat fluid. Sometimes a term would be used in a technical sense as the title for an office, sometimes not. This non-technical use of the terms even exists today, as when the term is used in many churches (both Protestant and Catholic) to refer to either ordained ministers (as in “My minister visited him”) or non-ordained individuals. (In a Protestant church one might hear “He is a worship minister,” while in a Catholic church one might hear “He is an extraordinary minister of Holy Communion.”)
Thus, in the apostolic age Paul sometimes described himself as a diakonos (“servant” or “minister”; cf. 2 Cor. 3:6, 6:4, 11:23; Eph. 3:7), even though he held an office much higher than that of a deacon, that of apostle.
Similarly, on one occasion Peter described himself as a “fellow elder,” [1 Pet. 5:1] even though he, being an apostle, also had a much higher office than that of an ordinary elder.
The term for bishop, episcopos (“overseer”), was also fluid in meaning. Sometimes it designated the overseer of an individual congregation (the priest), sometimes the person who was the overseer of all the congregations in a city or area (the bishop or evangelist), and sometimes simply the highest-ranking clergyman in the local church—who could be an apostle, if one were staying there at the time.
To be consistent, you believe then St Ignatius is referring to Deacons, Bishops and the apostles? The apostles weren’t around in 110ad.Although the terms “bishop,” “priest,” and “deacon” were somewhat fluid in the apostolic age, by the beginning of the second century they had achieved the fixed form in which they are used today to designate the three offices whose functions are clearly distinct in the New Testament.
=Porknpie;11587440]Hi Jon,
Probably not, since the Church in those days was at the well-spring of Tradition, and had not been subjected to Schism and division as we see it today (not to say there wasn’t division).Journey back to 100, 200, 300 ad. Do you believe your statement above to be true at that time? Taking your position above, can the statement by true today but not true in 200 ad? Should not your statement always have been true?
I wouldn’t necessarily describe scripture as “coming from” Tradition, but that said, I personally, would much prefer to see Tradition with no contradictions, and in perfect harmony with scripture, so we could return to that model.Given a choice between the two, and the logic above (scripture comes from Tradition), I would argue the reverse of your statement. I would then argue it has always been the case.
But you know we hold scripture and Tradition as equals and they never contradict each other.
Wish I could.
Noted. Twice.497 :d