M
Mr.Ex_Nihilo
Guest
Yes she did by the inspiriation of the Holy Spirit.The Church didn’t write the Bible.
If we can’t agree on this point, there’s really not much else we can say.
Ok…now we’re coming more to an agreement.God wrote the Bible using men to do so.
I already agreed with you on this to some extent. The point that you seem to be overlooking is that the Church is also clearly, according to the Scriptures, the proper interpreter of the Scriptures as enabled by the Holy Spirit.This is absolutely essential.
The Church has a custodial duty to Scripture, but she is not its author.
We can debate who the true church is later, but there’s no getting around this part that the church was also given the duty to interpet the Scriptures by the Holy Spirit as well.
Yes. But the Word of God also lives within those who carry on the traditional interpretations of the Scriptures too. The Word of God is not limited to the Sacred Writings-- but you already know that.The Church is subject to the Word of God, not v.v.
Why not?That there is anything other than the Bible which is in fact this authoritative Word of God, given the Church as a guide to faith and duty, cannot be established with sufficient evidence to bind the consciences of the redeemed in Christ.
The apostles, under the guidance of the Holy Spirit, were able to confirm in their conscience many things pertaining to salvation-- and the Holy Spirit is still very much active today as you know. In other words, authority was given to bind the conscience and teach God’s ordinances clearly.
In addition to this, the witness of the early fathers, whose history can be traced back to the apostles, clearly indicates a consistent pattern of understanding which exactly mirrors this very same testimony.
Quite frankly, if all one has are the Scriptures as the authoritative Word of God, even if given the ‘assumed’ Church as a guide to faith and duty, then how does one read 1 Timothy 4:1-5 and conclude that it’s speaking of the Catholic Church and not realize it’s denouncing the gnostic heretics that were already prevalent even during Paul’s time and continue to this day?
Did not Luther conclude this passage was about the Catholic Church? Do not other people who ascribe to the doctrine of Sola Scriptura not do the same?The Spirit clearly says that in later times some will abandon the faith and follow deceiving spirits and things taught by demons. Such teachings come through hypocritical liars, whose consciences have been seared as with a hot iron. They forbid people to marry and order them to abstain from certain foods, which God created to be received with thanksgiving by those who believe and who know the truth. For everything God created is good, and nothing is to be rejected if it is received with thanksgiving, because it is consecrated by the word of God and prayer.
Only if one believes that the Scriptures bind authoritatively on all matters of faith.All other authorities are, therefore and necessarily, subject and inferior to it.
And yet you’ve already admitted, apparently in regards to civil authority when contrasted to God’s laws, that the Scriptures do not condemn all forms of slavery-- and yet you also apparently accept that the Church does have a right to speak authoritatively regarding all forms of slavery.
Perhaps I misunderstood you so I have to ask am I understanding you correctly?
It’s very similar to what I thought you were going to say.This is a thumbnail of my perspective on Sola Scriptura.
Although I have to admit that, as a former Lutheran who really got into the nitty gritty of his theology, I thought that you were going to include some little tidbits about Luther’s thoughts on Natural Law too.
To be clear, do you feel that Luther’s thoughts on Natural Law pertain to this situation?
Or are we just sticking to Article VII: Of the Church & Article VIII: What the Church Is?