T
toaslan
Guest
Randy, I’m working on this post, but not tracking 100%.The definition of sola scriptura is:
Scripture is the only infallible rule of faith. (P)
Now, oral tradition is (keep this definition in mind) an infallible rule of faith and is distinct from written tradition. Take the proposition:
Oral tradition is an infallible rule of faith (Q)
Now if Q is true then P is false. That seems to be intuitive.
How do we prove Q? Well, we can show an example of an oral tradition. That is a sufficient condition but not a necessary one. We can show that there is an oral tradition that has been passed down.
How?
Well, 2 Thess 2:15. As long as we can show that oral tradition does exist, then P is shown to be false.
In the last paragraph cited above, you say:
A. *How do we prove Q? Well, we can show an example of an oral tradition. *
B That is a sufficient condition but not a necessary one.
C.*We can show that there is an oral tradition that has been passed down. *
I don’t get how B results or leads into C. I don’t see why A is not the end of your cited reasoning. I don’t see that A is different from C.
The rest of this package, by the way, rocks!
and may I again suggest we start with the beloved disciple, John, with a slow and honest reading of John 6 in the context of which it is written.