J
josephback
Guest
Ok, so I 've heard a lot of non-Catholics object to the Catholic definition of Sola Scriptura as “Scripture only, nothing else”. And when I rejected Sola Fide on the Scriptures(as I had been taught to refer to and revere them), I remember a Charismatic Reformed pastor asking if I had gotten any “resources” yet, that is extra biblical helps from Protestant theologians on this issue. I replied that “I had the Bible”
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Anyway it seems to me that the term ‘Sola Scriptura’(ONLY Scripture) is used to describe what in actuality becomes ‘Prima Scriptura’(Scripture First). Does anyone in Protestant apologetica actually refer to the Scriptures without ANY “helps”(Protestant theologians, favorite pastors, etc.), and can the individual’s opinion of a particular passage really be suspended by them when reading through the Bible alone? Does the book really interpret itself
and is the practice of Sola Scriptura being literally translated(i.e. “ONLY Scripture”) an unfair characterization of it by Catholics
Anyone who’s up to the challenge can bite
PROTESTANTS ONLY. We know the Catholic answer"
Anyway it seems to me that the term ‘Sola Scriptura’(ONLY Scripture) is used to describe what in actuality becomes ‘Prima Scriptura’(Scripture First). Does anyone in Protestant apologetica actually refer to the Scriptures without ANY “helps”(Protestant theologians, favorite pastors, etc.), and can the individual’s opinion of a particular passage really be suspended by them when reading through the Bible alone? Does the book really interpret itself
Anyone who’s up to the challenge can bite