C
cascherman
Guest
In order for this argument to hold water one would have to prove the Bible tells us everything necessary for any theological question we may have.As I said the Bible supports this definition primarily from a position of silence. By this I mean, the Bible does not identify any other sources that are “incapable of error”. Therefore, I have no sound reason to accept anything else as “incapable of error”.
So full sufficiency is key to this argument, and I would again argue the Bible does not tell us we will need nothing else. So, If the Bible does not say we will need nothing else, then I too can argue the position of silence for my reasoning that the Bible alone is not sufficient and there is another authority.
Right?