Some Gospel Questions

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30 Popes are executed within 275 years. That’s about one every 9 years. Just think how many would have been executed if we actually HAD a Pope in Rome! 😉
😃

Incidentally, I find it a little suspect that Old Scholar states
there is no evidence whatever that Peter ever made it to Rome and was not the first Bishop there. Check your Bible and you won’t find it.
and yet goes outside the Bible ad nauseum to tell us the real Church history… :rolleyes:
 
Where can I get this magazine, Jack Chick Monthly? I can’t find it in the newstand…
 
Where can I get this magazine, Jack Chick Monthly? I can’t find it in the newstand…
Just park your car in any Catholic Church parking lot, and someone will place a copy on your windshield within the half hour. (For most effective results, hang a Rosary from the rear view mirror, and leave a Pieta prayer book lying face up on the passenger seat.) 😉
 
Where can I get this magazine, Jack Chick Monthly? I can’t find it in the newstand…
From some of the mis-information you’ve posted, I would have thought you had all his back-issues.

Mea Culpa!

BTW, that Jack Chick is a hoot!!! The Ends certainly justify the Means in his Gospel.
 
OS, let me ask you something. Say there was somebody in your church, a fellow deacon or someone. And they had a stack of 100 bibles that they wanted to distribute to other members of your flock. You notice that in these bibles, the Gospel of John clearly states Jesus telling Nicodemus that someone could only get to heaven if they got a tattoo.

What would you do? What would your pastor do?

The Albigensian Heresy was much worse than this, because members were convincing people that suicide and such was a holy act.
 
Shortly thereafter, the Bibles were locked away from the common man and you could not own one. You were subject to death if you did or even read one without approval of the priests. This was a Catholic practice for hundreds of years.
What an absurd fairy tale. Pray tell, exactly what years did this occur? From when to when? In what country or countries? What specific Church document “outlawed the Bible?” None, none, none and none. You’ve been fed a bunch of lies, Old Scholar. This never happened. Open a separate thread if you like, and we’ll gladly discuss this laughable claim with you.
 
But do your own studying of RCC history. You won’t be able to find Peter in Rome in the Bible, so he couldn’t have been the first bishop. Paul appointed Bishops there, not Peter. You wont find that there was ever a pope until the 4th or 5th century either. You also won’t find anything in Scripture about the Assumption of Mary, the perpetual virginity of Mary, purgatory, penance, praying to the dead or anything about several other things you have been taught to believe.

May God guide you in yor studies…
Every one of these is in the Bible, most explicitly, a couple implicitly. Peter in Rome, penance, purgatory, prayers for the dead — they’re all there. Feel free to open a separate thread for each of these topics, so as not to hijack this thread. Thanks.
 
I attended Christmas Mass with my family, and listened as the pastor read the Gospel according to Matthew. (I was listening the whole time, actually, but I digress.) As you surely know, that Gospel reading details Jesus geneology and gives information about his conception and birth. Two things immediately struck me: Jesus’ place within the geneology and what seems [to me, at least] like a theological contradiction.

First, the genology. Matthew opens with a very long, detailed look at Jesus’ ancestry. I understand that knowing one’s family line was an important part of ancient Jewish culture, and that theirs was and is a patrilineal culture. However, as awesome as it is that one may follow Abraham to Joseph, Jesus was not born of Joseph because he was conceived through the Holy Spirit. So does the genology still hold its importance for Jesus as Joseph is sort of a foster father, or what?

What really leapt out at me was the verse “He had no relations with her until she bore a son, and he named him Jesus”. I thought that perhaps the pastor had misspoken himself, but when I got home and looked up the Bible verse, I found that that’s exactly what it says. **This presents an interesting problem. The Bible, as it is held to be the word of God, is of course without error. It is also a central Catholic teaching that the Blessed Virgin Mary always was and always will be a virgin. But the word “until” suggests that Mary and Joseph did have relations with each other after Jesus was born. So the perfect Bible appears to say one thing and the Church (which, as I recall, was making an Ex Cathedra/infallible statement when it was issued) appears to say something else, with the two statements being mutually exclusive. **
What is the reasoning behind the apparent contradiction? Given that there are two perfect sources, I’m sure the error lies in my obviously imperfect understanding of the two. (My best guess is that there were some linguistic inconsistencies between the original Greek and the later Latin and English, but the inadequacies of language leading to a gross mistranslation would seem to detract from the perfection of the Bible.)

If you’d like to help me understand these two things, I’d be greatly obliged. I love learning about religion and I want to know as much as I can about the Church. Please understand that if I come across as ignorant or insultory, that’s absolutely not my intention and I wish you and yours all the best in this blessed Christmas season.
Yeah! The Holy Spirit is speaking to you and giving you illumination into the truth!

You are right! Until means “up to the time.” If I say: I was afraid of flying until I took my first flight." That means my fear existed only up to the time of my first flight and then my fear of flying was alleviated.

Joseph and Mary had normal sexual relations like any other couple after Jesus was born. The Bible even talks about Jesus’ other brothers and sisters.

The Greek has one word for brother (adelphos), another word for cousin (anepsios) and another word for close relative or kinsman (sungenis). When the Bible says Mark was a cousin of Barnabas (Col 4:10) it uses “anepsios” and Mary was Elizabeth’s “kinswoman” (sungenis).

However when the NT refers to Jesus’ brothers and sisters it specifically uses the word “adelphos”:
Matt. 12:46-49, Matt 13:55-56
Mark 3:31-35, Mark 6:3
and Luke 8:19-21
John 2:12 and John 7:3
1 Corinthians 9:5
Galatians 1:19

All of these specify through the context and through the precision of the Greek language that these were the familial, biologically (through Mary) relations and not just disciples or followers. In fact, in many of the passages Jesus’ family is distinguished from his followers.

The perpetual virginity of Mary was added by man, not given by God. You are on the right track in just believing the Bible in what it says and not getting confused elsewhere.
 
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