J
jjje1995
Guest
Good morning, brothers and sisters in Christ!
There are two passages in the Gospel I am finding rather hard to understand.
So, in the first chapter of Saint Matthew’s Gospel, which is believed to record Mary’s genealogy, it is recorded Jesus descends from David (Saint Matthew 1:6) but, latter on in Saint Matthew’s Gospel, it says
On a different note, could someone shed some light on why Jesus used the verse from Psalm 82 which says
Thank you all in advance!
God bless you!
There are two passages in the Gospel I am finding rather hard to understand.
So, in the first chapter of Saint Matthew’s Gospel, which is believed to record Mary’s genealogy, it is recorded Jesus descends from David (Saint Matthew 1:6) but, latter on in Saint Matthew’s Gospel, it says
I find this hard to understand because it almost seems like Jesus is arguing the Messiah would not be David’s descendant when it explicitly says in Saint Matthew 1:1 “this is the genealogy of Jesus the Messiah the son of David”.When some Pharisees gathered together, Jesus asked them, “What do you think about the Messiah? Whose descendant is he?” “He is David’s descendant,” they answered. “Why, then,” Jesus asked, “did the Spirit inspire David to call him ‘Lord’? David said, ‘The Lord said to my Lord: Sit here at my right side until I put your enemies under your feet.’ If, then, David called him ‘Lord,’ how can the Messiah be David’s descendant? No one was able to give Jesus any answer, and from that day on no one dared to ask him any more questions (Saint Matthew 22:41-46).
On a different note, could someone shed some light on why Jesus used the verse from Psalm 82 which says
when the Jews were arguing with him in Saint John 10:34.‘You are gods,’ I said; ‘all of you are children of the Most High’ (Psalms 82:6)
Thank you all in advance!
God bless you!