"Son of God" means "Servant of God" !

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Justice2006

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Son of God means Servant of God

To Christians:

Could any Christian qoute Acts 3:26 from The New American Bible and from The Douay Rheims Bible?

FYI: Both The New American Bible and The Douay Rheims Bible are Catholic Bibles.

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Justice2006 said:
Son of God means Servant of God

To Christians:

Could any Christian qoute Acts 3:26 from The New American Bible and from The Douay Rheims Bible?

FYI: Both The New American Bible and The Douay Rheims Bible are Catholic Bibles.

.
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The DRV states: To you first, God, raising up his Son, hath sent him to bless you; that every one may convert himself from his wickedness.

I do not know what your point is, but here it is for you to see what you asked to be quoted.
 
The New American Bible reads:

For you first, God raised up his servant and sent him to bless you by turning each of you from your evil ways.

So what? So you’re going to make a big deal because one says “Son” and the other “servant”?
 
In Greek, the word in question is “paida” (inflected form). It means “child” and also servant.
 
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Booklover:
The New American Bible reads:

For you first, God raised up his servant and sent him to bless you by turning each of you from your evil ways.

So what? So you’re going to make a big deal because one says “Son” and the other “servant”?
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Maybe he is trying to point out that Jesus is not God, and that being God’s servent means He is not God. Who knows??

Incase this is a Trinity issue, here are some scriptures for him to consider:

Mt. 28:19, Jn 14: 26 and 15: 26, 2 Cor 13: 14 and 1 Pe 1:2.
Jn 1: 1-2, 14 and 18,
Jn 3: 3, 5, 7, 15 - 16
Jn 5: 18
Jn 6: 29
Jn 14: 6 - 10, 16 - 17
Hebrews 10: 15 - 18
1 Pe 3: 18 - 19
1 Jn 5: 20 and 6 - 8
Rev 19: 11 - 16 and 22: 12 - 17

Based on his post that I just seen, it sounds indeed like a Trinity issue.
 
Let’s take the high road and assume the question was asked because that page is torn out in their Bible 😃
 
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awalt:
Let’s take the high road and assume the question was asked because that page is torn out in their Bible 😃
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The original poster is a Muslim who keeps trying to prove to us ignorant Christians and the Church, that Jesus is not the Son of God, but just a messenger and that he or she is the ultimate authority on this!:rolleyes:
 
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Booklover:
The original poster is a Muslim who keeps trying to prove to us ignorant Christians and the Church, that Jesus is not the Son of God, but just a messenger and that he or she is the ultimate authority on this!:rolleyes:
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actually his point is : the Bible is corrupt !! thats why he asked his question but the knowledge of Greek solved his problem 🙂
 
Justice2006 said:
Son of God means Servant of God

To Christians:

Could any Christian qoute Acts 3:26 from The New American Bible and from The Douay Rheims Bible?

FYI: Both The New American Bible and The Douay Rheims Bible are Catholic Bibles.

.
Click to expand...

Neither Bible mentions the “Son of God” so what is your accretion that “Son of God” means “Servant of God” based on? Wishful thinking? How about this one from Acts 3:26; “Servant does not mean veterinarian!!!”? :rolleyes:

Islamic apologetics have been so disappointing lately haven’t they?
 
To all Christian (especially the Catholic) participants of this thread:

I am upset to see that none of you had the courage to qoute the verse **Act 3:26 ** from TWO CATHOLIC BIBLES (**the Douay Rheims Bible ** and the New American Bible), together, in order to compare/see **what is really going on WITHIN THE CATHOLIC CHURCH itself ** while translating the Greek word “Pias” into the Bibles of English and other langauges.

Now let me qoute them on your behalf:

Acts 3:26 - From Catholic’s** Douay Rheims Bible**

**To you first God, raising up his Son, hath sent him to bless you; that every one may convert himself from his wickedness. **
[Douay-Rheims Bible, Acts of Apostles Chapter 3]](Douay-Rheims Bible, Acts of Apostles Chapter 3])
Acts 3:26 - From Catholic’s** The New American Bible**

**…For you first, God raised up his servant and sent him to bless you by turning each of you from your evil ways." **

usccb.org/nab/bible/acts/acts3.htm
So the Greek word “PIAS” of the so-called “original” Manuscript of New Testament is translated by the Catholic Bible scholars as: servant in their recent version of the Bible unlike their own previous Bible -Douay Rheims.
By the way, Greek was **not ** the native language of Jesus nor his Jewish disciples.

I wonder why Catholic learned Bible translators felt necessary to translate “PIAS” as servant with small “s” by rejecting their OWN previous stance, i.e. Son with capital “S”?​

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I assume you have an anti-Catholic point to make. Please go ahead. However, we Catholics firmly believe that Jesus is the Son of God.
 
Justice2006 said:

I am upset to see that none of you had the courage to qoute the verse **Act 3:26 ** from TWO CATHOLIC BIBLES
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Booklover addressed this in post #3. It just wasn’t what you wanted to hear.​
 
Justice2006,

Since we all know what you are attempting to do is to prove the Bible is corrupted, let’s just cut to the chase.
  1. What evidence of corruption can you offer that proves the invalidity of the Bible?
No, what you previously posted is not proof. A diffrence in translation does not make the Bible invalid. Just because you conveniently believe the Quran is only valid in Arabic, that does not mean translations do not carry the same basic message.
  1. Do you have a pre-biblical source or even a source contemporary to the Bible as evidence of corruption?
  2. How about a Muslim work from the past 1400 years that can show us each addition, change and deletion?
In 1400 years not one Muslim scholar has been able to do that, why not if it is so obvious?

You have no proof, but attacking Christianity make you feel better about Islam doesn’t it?
 
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Justice2006:
To all Christian (especially the Catholic) participants of this thread:

I am upset to see that none of you had the courage to qoute the verse **Act 3:26 ** from TWO CATHOLIC BIBLES (**the Douay Rheims Bible ** and the New American Bible), together, in order to compare/see **what is really going on WITHIN THE CATHOLIC CHURCH itself ** while translating the Greek word “Pias” into the Bibles of English and other langauges.

Now let me qoute them on your behalf:

Acts 3:26 - From Catholic’s** Douay Rheims Bible**

To you first God, raising up his Son, hath sent him to bless you; that every one may convert himself from his wickedness.
[Douay-Rheims Bible, Acts of Apostles Chapter 3]](Douay-Rheims Bible, Acts of Apostles Chapter 3])
Acts 3:26 - From Catholic’s** The New American Bible**

**…For you first, God raised up his servant ** and sent him to bless you by turning each of you from your evil ways."

usccb.org/nab/bible/acts/acts3.htm
So the Greek word “PIAS” of the so-called “original” Manuscript of New Testament is translated by the Catholic Bible scholars as: servant in their recent version of the Bible unlike their own previous Bible -Douay Rheims.
By the way, Greek was **not ** the native language of Jesus nor his Jewish disciples.

I wonder why Catholic learned Bible translators felt necessary to translate "PIAS" as servant with small “s” by rejecting their OWN previous stance, i.e. Son with capital “S”?​

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Friend, if you go back to my post earlier, you will see that I quoted the DRV to you. Also you failed to read my post to you
about the quoted scriptures regarding the Trinity.
 
Good points GW!

Rodrigo is having thread Parallelism… maybe Justice2006 would like to have discussion one on one with Rodrigo regarding Bible’s corruption! 👍

Anyone agree please say your voice here
 
On the first page of the Iliad, the priest Chryses piteously and memorably begs the Greeks to return his captive daughter to him. In his first quoted passage, the man refers to his daughter by the word “paida” (object form of “pais”). In later Greek, “pais” would occasionally be used as shorthand for “servant,” much as a French waiter might be called “garcon” (the French word for “boy”).

If “pais” must be taken to mean “servant,” though, then perhaps the OP has opened up a new direction in Classical studies. The priest actually wanted his cleaning woman back! Yeesh.
 
maybe our muslim friend should read the parable of the wicked tenant for example when Jesus considers himself the Son of God…or maybe when Jesus said : i did not come to be served but to serve…so is Jesus both? Jesus is EVERYTHING. 👍
 
Of course. Jesus is both Son and Servant. No contradiction. I never realized that Muslims engage in such literal and linear thinking as a matter of course. Does Arabic literature not possess various levels of meaning within a single text? Maybe not.
 
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JimG:
Of course. Jesus is both Son and Servant. No contradiction. I never realized that Muslims engage in such literal and linear thinking as a matter of course. Does Arabic literature not possess various levels of meaning within a single text? Maybe not.
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Good point. If fundamentalist Christians (who actually can occasionally interact with arguments without resorting to sheer triumphalism) can’t convert me, what chance do these guys have?

Scott
 
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JimG:
Of course. Jesus is both Son and Servant. No contradiction. .
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So, Jesus was a Servant too. Then:
  • He was Servant to who?
  • Was he not Himself God, according to your view? If yes,
  • Then was Jesus (God) Serving to himself? If so, then:
  • What kind of Serving is this? Self-Serving? Self-Worshipping?
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