Son of Man

  • Thread starter Thread starter alms
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
A

alms

Guest
Jesus continuously in the New Testament refers to himself as the “Son of Man”. Speculating, does He do this in lieu of “Son of God” to emphasize that he is the Messiah to the Jews? “Son of Man” is used plenty in the Old Testiment.

Does the Church have a teaching on the reason for the use of “Son of Man”?
 
alms said:
Jesus continuously in the New Testament refers to himself as the “Son of Man”. Speculating, does He do this in lieu of “Son of God” to emphasize that he is the Messiah to the Jews? “Son of Man” is used plenty in the Old Testiment.

Does the Church have a teaching on the reason for the use of “Son of Man”?
Click to expand...
One reason He used Son of Man was to emphasize that He actually was the Son of man - He was born of a human woman, and so was truly man.

Another reason has to do with the fact that some of the prophecies in the Old Testament about the Messiah refer to Him as “Son of Man.”
 
Sometimes “Son of Man” in the OT refers to just any normal person.

Other times it’s prophetic. The one you see most commonly used is found in Daniel, I believe it’s Chapter 9, Desribing one “Like the Son of Man coming down on a cloud…”

Jesus refers to this prophecy when the High Priest asks him if he is the Messiah. Stephen refers to this prophecy when he sees Jesus at the right hand of God right before he was stoned to death. And I believe Revelation refers to this prophecy numerous times throughout the book.
 
Its Daniel Chapter 7, read the chapter. This marks a shift in Jewish prophecy, the messiah is set forth as a divine/heavenly being for the first time is Jewish prophecy.
Now lets go to the Gospel of Mark, ch 14 v62-63.

62: And Jesus said, “I am; and you will see the Son of man seated at the right hand of Power, and coming with the clouds of heaven.”
63: And the high priest tore his garments, and said, "Why do we still need witnesses?

Note the High priest goes bananas at Jesus’ reference to Daniel 7? Thats because Jesus is claiming divinity, and the High priest, who is very familiar with the book of Daniel, knows it.
 
cialovesyou said:
Its Daniel Chapter 7, read the chapter. This marks a shift in Jewish prophecy, the messiah is set forth as a divine/heavenly being for the first time is Jewish prophecy.
Now lets go to the Gospel of Mark, ch 14 v62-63.

62: And Jesus said, “I am; and you will see the Son of man seated at the right hand of Power, and coming with the clouds of heaven.”
63: And the high priest tore his garments, and said, "Why do we still need witnesses?

Note the High priest goes bananas at Jesus’ reference to Daniel 7? Thats because Jesus is claiming divinity, and the High priest, who is very familiar with the book of Daniel, knows it.
Click to expand...
Thanks…:yup:
 
Son of Man is a name Jesus uses for his humanity. Son of God is a name for his divinity.

I always think of Jehovah’s Witnesses. If God is your father, and you have a human mother, how to you end up with an angelic nature?
 
What is interesting (to me) is that the first time this phrase is used in the Torah, is Numbers 23:19 and it is used to expressly state that God is not a man. (neither the son of man that he should repent).

In Job, the phase is comes up three times. One of which is
“The son of man, who is a worm!”

It’s used repeatedly in Psalms. Always to show or describe humanity.

Eziekel wins the son of man usage contest – 94 times. Always used to reference the author.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top