Son of Man

[discerning]

I’m wondering about the background of the title/phrase “Son of Man”, for instance in the book of Jonah.

In some instances in Sacred Scripture, it refers to Jesus, in others, to mankind in general?

Is there a reason for this specific wording. And why would that kind of translation be chosen if it could be used interchangably to mean different things? Is it just a traditional form of language passed on from the Old Testament?

thanks

 

[Daniel_Marsh]

it simply means “human”

 

[Della]

It does mean human, but when Jesus used the term he was referring to himself as the Second Adam that St. Paul wrote of. Jesus was both the Son of God and the Son of Man. As the Son of God he could offer the perfect sacrifice to his divine Father, and as Son of Man he represented all mankind. Does that help?

 

[cialovesyou]

Son of man means man in the early scriptures, up until the point it takes a new and extremely important meaning in the book of Daniel. Specifically, you need to read chapter 7 of Daniel.
Here is an excerpt, but I encourage you to read the whole chapter…

Dan 7:13: I saw in the night visions, and behold, with the clouds of heaven there came one like a son of man, and he came to the Ancient of Days and was presented before him.

This is a direct prophecy of a divine like creature being as a “son of man”.
Now, the Pharisee’s were particularly into the book of Daniel, and knew its prophecies…
This is why the High Priest goes bananas when Jesus says it!

Mark 14:61: But he was silent and made no answer. Again the high priest asked him, “Are you the Christ, the Son of the Blessed?”
62: And Jesus said, “I am; and you will see the Son of man seated at the right hand of Power, and coming with the clouds of heaven.”
63: And the high priest tore his garments, and said, "Why do we still need witnesses?

Jesus is making a direct claim of divinity, or at the very least, of being a celestial being. The High Priest knows this, and reacts by renting his garments, a sure sign you have annoyed a Jew.

Hope this helps.
Anthony

 

[Valke2]

THe first place the term is used is in Numbers,

God is not a man, that he should lie,
Neither the son of man, that he should repent:
Has he said, and will he not do it?
Or has he spoken, and will he not make it good?

 

[DLC]

We need to understand this term,“Son of Man” in the way the Jews would have understood it. The term"Son of" is what is important. It mean of the same essence or quality of the thing it modified. To say that my son Will is the son of Darrel is say that Will is of the same essence, or quality as me, in otherwords he is a human just like me. The term,“Son of Man” refering to Christ is to show that Christ was of the same essence or qulity as a man. It shows His human side. He was a human just like we are yet without sin. The term, “Son of God” show Christ’s diety. He was of the very same essence as God. He was as much God as God the Father is God. This concept is often misunderstood by many false religions tying to show that Christ was “a god” or that He was not God at all. They are wrong in their understaning of this title.