S
Steve1001
Guest
What is the correct statement of the doctrine that we are required to assent to the moral teachings of the Church? What are some documents (with refs) that this doctrine is found in?
Is all the Church’ teaching on morals infallible? If so, in what documents (with refs) is this stated?
If the Church is not infallible when it proclaims a particular moral law, what basis does the Church have for teaching it i.e. how can the Church say that “x is wrong” if it is not certain that x is wrong.
Is all the Church’ teaching on morals infallible? If so, in what documents (with refs) is this stated?
If the Church is not infallible when it proclaims a particular moral law, what basis does the Church have for teaching it i.e. how can the Church say that “x is wrong” if it is not certain that x is wrong.