Speaking in tongues ONLY proof?

[Grace_and_Glory]

A quote from the Doctrine section of upci.org…

Quote:

Some people quote I Corinthians 12:30 in an attempt to prove that not all speak in tongues when they are filled with the Spirit: “Do all speak with tongues?” However, this verse refers to the gift of tongues, that is, speaking a public message in tongues to be interpreted for the congregation, which is a spiritual gift that a person may exercise subsequent to the infilling of the Spirit. Though both tongues as the inital evidence of the baptism of the Holy Ghost and tongues as a later spiritual gift are the same in essence, they are different in administration and operation. For example, the regulations regarding the gift of tongues in I Corinthians 14:27-28 did not apply to the conversion accounts in Acts, where many people spoke in tongues simultaneously, without interpretation, as the sign of being filled with the Spirit.

I would challenge your Pentecostal friends to show where in the Bible the distinction between the gift of tongues and speaking in tongues. I have not found a single passage that distinguishes the gift of tongues at Pentecost from the gift of tongues referred to in 1 Corinthians 14. At Pentecost, there was no interpretation because there was no need for interpretation: those who heard the Apostles understood them. Also, wouldn’t St. Paul want to make the distinction between the gift he is referring to and the gift of tongues at Pentecost? Why doesn’t he make this clear in his letter to the Corinthians? And how is today’s Christian supposed to figure out the difference between the gift of tongues and speaking in tongues?
1 Cor 14:5 “Now I would like all of you to speak in tongues, but even more to prophesy. One who prophesies is greater than one who speaks in tongues, unless someone interprets, so that the church may be built up.” When I read this verse, I don’t understand how speaking in tongues can be the sign that a person is filled with the Holy Spirit. If it were, wouldn’t St. Paul say that he would rather have the Corinthians speak in tongues as a sign that they were filled with the Spirit?

 

[The_Eurasian]

3 EXAMPLES OF CATHOLICS SPEAKING IN TOUNGES CENTURIES AFTER THE APOSTLES

(1) St, Vincent Ferrer, Dominican priest, defender of false pope in Catherine of Siena’s time.

(2) Padre Pio of Petrelcina (died in 1960s). If my memory is correct, Padre Pio did not know any english. But somebody who didn’t know any Italian confessed to him in english. And he said Padre Pio was speaking to him in English

(3) Bernadette Soubirus. One of the messages given to this illiterate French girl was the name of the woman appearing to her in the Apparition at Lourdes in 1858. Bernadette did not know the meaning of the name. BUT HIGH CATHOLIC CHURCH OFFICIAL KNEW!!! That’s why they knew that the Apparition at Lourdes was a REAL MARIAN APPARITION.

These things can be checked via books and even in the internet.

I have not heard Protestants or Pentecostals with experiences such as these CATHOLIC EXPERIENCES where MEANINGFUL WORDS WERE TRANSMITTED IN ONE LANGUAGE AND UNDERSTOOD IN ANOTHER LANGUAGE VIA THE GIFT OF TONGUES WITHOUT ANY TRANSLATOR.