C
consumedconvert
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"].Up here where I live , I’m quite sure the Lectionary now being used in the Liturgy of the Word hasn’t even been approved by Rome.
It’s a blessed thing to be vigilant regarding some modern day translations of our so called “Catholic” bibles ! One of mine (published in 1970) also reduced “full of grace” to “highly favored daughter”. These changes trickle down into the missalettes too, leaving a large part of the faithful aloof to the gradual erosion of certain key terms and phrases.
Some texts have taken the liberty to render Isaiah 7:14 to the “young woman” shall be with child, instead of the “virgin” shall be with child…so where’s the miracle…? When I inquired about this particular change in the passage which appeared in the missalette, I was informed by a minister ordained to preach God’s word that, “The prevalent thought is that this passage did not apply to the Blessed Virgin Mary”, [even though the Gospel of Matthew 1:22-23, consecrates these very words to the Incarnation: **"All this happened to fulfill what the Lord had said through the prophet: ‘The virgin shall be with child and give birth to a son, and they shall call him Emmanuel, a name which means God is with us.’
It would appear that somehow during the rendering process of certain of these particular “translations”,sometimes even the Holy Spirit is asked to take a back seat.
Is it possible that the same Greek phrase often translated “Full of Grace” might also be legitimately translated “Highly favored daughter?” Or that the Greek term for virgin can mean eitheryoung woman or virgin in the modern sense (with an underlying assumption that virgins are young women and non-virgins no longer qualify as young women)? Certainly. As far as what your pastor said about the passage referring to a different young woman–is it possible that it did refer to a young woman present with Isaiah when he said that (I believe that interpretation is based on the demonstrative pronoun, which indicates someone actually physically present–the thought was that it was the woman known as “the prophetess”) but does double-duty as a prophecy, prophesying not only the birth of the child of the prophetess (probably fathered by Isaiah) but also the Christ-child? Might, then, the ancient words for virgin been providentially made intentionally ambiguous by the King of Kings, so that both prophecies could be fulfilled? Isn’t it possible that Isaiah had no idea when he was propsying, he had no clue he was actually prophesying two events?
This reminds me of KJVers, who believe that every new translation is trying to undermine their faith. But thankfully we have the Magisterium to guide us. As long as a translation is above all faithful to the text, I believe that it can help us go deeper into the Christian mysteries. But we don’t get our doctrine straight from the Bible. We get it from the Magisterium. And of course, we need not fear that a faithful rendering of Scripture will undermine or contradict the Magisterium any more than we have to worry that the next dogmatic ex-Cathedra statement with contradict the Magisterium.