S
smichhertz
Guest
That makes sense. I had never heard of purely penal laws before. For those (like me) who are ignorant of that here is a quote from the CE:One idea that can perhaps enter here is the idea that some laws are “purely penal laws” that is laws that bind in conscience in the sense that if one gets penalized for acting contrary to the law then one is bound to pay the fine…but if not …one is not sinning per se to not observe it.
Laws purely penal (leges mere poenales) are those which do not make an action absolutely obligatory, but simply impose penalty in case one is convicted of transgression. Thus they leave it, in a certain sense, to the choice of the subject whether he will abstain from the penal action, or whether, if the violation is proved against him, he will submit to the penalty. The objection cannot be raised that purely penal laws are not actual laws because they create no bounden duty, for they oblige the violator of the law to bear the punishment if the authorities apprehend and convict him. Whether a law is a purely penal law or not is not so easy to decide in an individual case. The decision depends on the will of the lawgiver and also upon the general opinion and custom of a community.
So this is exactly what you were trying to say. I understand now. The will of the lawgiver and the custom of the community show that a posted speed limit is a purely penal law. This means that if I choose to drive above the speed limit (to a reasonable extend as understood by the lawgiver and community) as long as I am willing to pay the ticket if given one, then it is not a sin.newadvent.org/cathen/09053a.htm (Under “Classification of Laws”)
Thank you! That clears it up!