S
slywakka250
Guest
Well since you draw this distinction between intention and object, I ask, how is a regular condom different from a perforated condom in regards to “moral object.” As we all know, regular condoms are not 100% effective, so everyone who uses one is technically “open to life” as far as the “object” is concerned. The just usually lack the intention. But if you say the object must also be moral, how is a regular condom any different from a perforated condom???A perforated condom and a natural act of marital intercourse are permitted for the collection of a semen sample for a couple of reasons, by my understanding.:
(1) The Church places no “percentage effectiveness threshold” beyond which a device is contraceptive. Either it is, or it isn’t. In the case of the perforated condom, what matters is that semen from the act is present in the woman, leaving open the possibility of conception.
(2) Coupled with this is the importance of the couple’s intentions in choosing to use a perforated condom. Their intention is to collect a sample and take it to the lab for analysis; their intention is not contraceptive in the least, and they are doing everything they can to make the act as procreative as possible while still obtaining the necessary sample for analysis.
It’s important to note that these two reasons don’t stand alone–they describe both the object and the intention of the act of semen collection as a moral act.
Another example. What if the man or woman has an std, some sort of infection that he or she doesn’t want to give to her spouse. Here the intention when using the condom might be to prevent an infection. Is a perforated condom allowed in this case, because it is still open to life, but very slightly decreases the odds of infection??
Its so unclear where to draw the line. This is why this kind of morality just doesn’t make sense to me, when one small misstep with full knowledge and consent could equal hell, when dealing with the serious matter of sexuality.