Split: Another Marian Debate

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Please let us help, which one would you like to start with. Let’s try a little slower approach. Sinlessness- we have to start with typology. the Ark of the Old covenant prefigured Mary, the ark of the New Covenant. The first chapter of Luke’s gospel repeatedly makes this connection.

OT Ark
A Cloud of glory covered the Tabernacle and Ark Exodus 40: 34-35; Numbers 9: 15

Mary, NT Ark
" And the angel said to her; " The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you" Luke 1:35

OT
Ark spent three months in the house of Obededom and Gittite 2 Samuel 6:11

NT
Mary spent three months in the house of Zechariah and Elizabeth Luke 1:26,40

OT Ark
King David asked “How can the ark of the Lord come to me?” 2 Samuel 6:9

NT Ark
Elizabeth asks Mary, “why is this that the mother of my Lord should come to me?” Luke 1:43
OT Ark
David LEAPED and danced before the Lord when the Ark arrived in Jerusalem 2 Samuel 6:14-16

NT Ark John the baptist LEAPED for joy in Elizabeth’s womb when Mary arrived Luke 1:44

Typology, once you understand the meaning and importance of OT types, you will discover that ALL CATHOLIC BELIEFS about Mary are found in the Bible.
Interesting parallels all. But they don’t say that Mary was the new Arc of the Covenant or that she is an exception to sin.
 
the question is where in the Bible is the commonly referred to Trinity. Can you show me exactly where the words “The Trinity” is found?
We both know that the word “trinity” is not in the bible. That’s not the point, lots of words are not in the bible. What is important is that the concept is in the bible…and frankly it’s in our face. We don’t have to go looking for it. As stated in the Anglican 39 Articles as one example,

“Holy Scripture containeth all things necessary to salvation: so that whatsoever is not read therein, nor may be proved thereby, is not to be required of any man, that it should be believed as an article of the Faith, or be thought requisite or necessary to salvation.” (Emphasis Added).

The doctrine of the Trinity can easily “be proven thereby”.
 
But where in the Bible is our understanding of the Trinity explicated? The Church teaches that the Trinity is three persons in one being in the Godhead. This is what most Protestants believe, as well. (Or I should say, one teaching the Protestants did not abandon.) But this is not spelled out for us in Scripture. …This is a really good example of how Catholics read and understand the doctrines of the Immaculate Conception and the Assumption. The Bible does not contradict these teachings, but it also does not spell these doctrines out for us.
The Trinity is pretty straight forward as I posted above. There is also the references to “the Spirit of the Lord” and “I and the Father are one, whomsoever has seen me has seen the father.” I’m sure that there is more such references that I’m missing, doing this off the top of my head prior to Church.

In contrast, there is nothing in the bible that supports, or contradicts, the assumption of Mary. The question of Mary remaining ever Virgin is pretty much refuted by Scripture, although enough ambiguity remains that you can’t irrefutably prove it one way or the other. The IC is least supported by Scripture. The typeology references are interesting, but don’t directly say anything in support of a doctrine that is contrary to other teachings of Scripture.
 
God’s plan has certainly come to fruition! Joseph next in line to Kingship and as husband makes her Queen who is also in the Davidic line of succession, this could’nt be more clear. Now Jesus had to explain the scriptures to the apostles, Luke 24: 25.Starting with moses and going through all the prophets.Therefore would’nt you suspect that we need the sriptures explained to us by someone who has the authority to do so. I do believe this is exactly why Jesus left Peter to shepperd the flock. Matt 16: 19 the keys to the kingdom! John 21: 15 Feed my sheep! ]

On Mary. I believe the magnificat explains it all Luke 1:41-56.
My two cents worth.

Have a Blessed Christmas and New Year.
Onenow1
 
The Trinity is pretty straight forward as I posted above. There is also the references to “the Spirit of the Lord” and “I and the Father are one, whomsoever has seen me has seen the father.” I’m sure that there is more such references that I’m missing, doing this off the top of my head prior to Church.
Trinity is very clear in Scripture. That we know much.
In contrast, there is nothing in the bible that supports, or contradicts, the assumption of Mary.
No it does not. Do you think assuming into Heaven is against Scripture? What verse can you say that people can’t assumed into heaven? The Scripture does not even say that Mary didn’t assume into Heaven? Where in the Scripture that Mary didn’t assumed into Heaven? Your argument falls apart there.

If you read the Scripture in the context it was written, it is in favor of Holy Men and Women assumed into heaven.

Gen. 5:24, Heb. 11:5 - Enoch was bodily assumed into heaven without dying. Would God do any less for Mary the Ark of the New Covenant?

2 Kings 2:11-12; 1 Mac 2:58 - Elijah was assumed into heaven in fiery chariot. Jesus would not do any less for His Blessed Mother.

Psalm 132:8 - Arise, O Lord, and go to thy resting place, thou and the Ark (Mary) of thy might. Both Jesus and Mary were taken up to their eternal resting place in heaven.

2 Cor. 12:2 - Paul speaks of a man in Christ who was caught up to the third heaven. Mary was also brought up into heaven by God.

Matt. 27:52-53 - when Jesus died and rose, the bodies of the saints were raised. Nothing in Scripture precludes Mary’s assumption into heaven.

1 Thess. 4:17 - we shall be caught up in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air and so we shall always be with the Lord.

Rev. 12:1 - we see Mary, the “woman,” clothed with the sun. While in Rev. 6:9 we only see the souls of the martyrs in heaven, in Rev. 12:1 we see Mary, both body and soul.

2 Thess. 2:15 - Paul instructs us to hold fast to oral (not just written) tradition. Apostolic tradition says Mary was assumed into heaven. While claiming the bones of the saints was a common practice during these times (and would have been especially important to obtain Mary’s bones as she was the Mother of God), Mary’s bones were never claimed. This is because they were not available. Mary was taken up body and soul into heaven.
 
Mary remaining ever Virgin is pretty much refuted by Scripture, although enough ambiguity remains that you can’t irrefutably prove it one way or the other. The IC is least supported by Scripture. The typeology references are interesting, but don’t directly say anything in support of a doctrine that is contrary to other teachings of Scripture.
Again your remarks is refuted. When you read the Bible in the modern sense, you will assume that she didn’t remain a virgin. Protestants also lack the knowledge of ancient Mosaic Law.

Exodus 13:2,12 - Jesus is sometimes referred to as the “first-born” son of Mary. But “first-born” is a common Jewish expression meaning the first child to open the womb. It has nothing to do the mother having future children.

Exodus 34:20 - under the Mosaic law, the “first-born” son had to be sanctified. “First-born” status does not require a “second” born.

Ezek. 44:2 - Ezekiel prophesies that no man shall pass through the gate by which the Lord entered the world. This is a prophecy of Mary’s perpetual virginity. Mary remained a virgin before, during and after the birth of Jesus.

Mark 6:3 - Jesus was always referred to as “the” son of Mary, not “a” son of Mary. Also “brothers” could have theoretically been Joseph’s children from a former marriage that was dissolved by death. However, it is most likely, perhaps most certainly, that Joseph was a virgin, just as were Jesus and Mary. As such, they embodied the true Holy Family, fully consecrated to God.

Luke 1:31,34 - the angel tells Mary that you “will” conceive (using the future tense). Mary responds by saying, “How shall this be?” Mary’s response demonstrates that she had taken a vow of lifelong virginity by having no intention to have relations with a man. If Mary did not take such a vow of lifelong virginity, her question would make no sense at all (for we can assume she knew how a child is conceived). She was a consecrated Temple virgin as was an acceptable custom of the times.

Luke 2:41-51 - in searching for Jesus and finding Him in the temple, there is never any mention of other siblings.

John 7:3-4; Mark 3:21 - we see that younger “brothers” were advising Jesus. But this would have been extremely disrespectful for devout Jews if these were Jesus’ biological brothers.

John 19:26-27 - it would have been unthinkable for Jesus to commit the care of his mother to a friend if he had brothers.

John 19:25 - the following verses prove that James and Joseph are Jesus’ cousins and not his brothers: Mary the wife of Clopas is the sister of the Virgin Mary.

Matt. 27:61, 28:1 - Matthew even refers to Mary the wife of Clopas as “the other Mary.”

Matt. 27:56; Mark 15:47 - Mary the wife of Clopas is the mother of James and Joseph.

Mark 6:3 - James and Joseph are called the “brothers” of Jesus. So James and Joseph are Jesus’ cousins.

Matt. 10:3 - James is also called the son of “Alpheus.” This does not disprove that James is the son of Clopas. The name Alpheus may be Aramaic for Clopas, or James took a Greek name like Saul (Paul), or Mary remarried a man named Alpheus.
 
rr1213,

If the belief of Mary didn’t assumed into heaven and remain a Virgin, I would not think the early Christians would believe it either.

In fact many early Christian Leaders believed in the Assumption of Mary and that she remain a virgin. Even some Reformer believe in Mary remain a virgin like Martin Luther.

II. Mary’s Immaculate Conception
“He was the ark formed of incorruptible wood. For by this is signified that His tabernacle was exempt from putridity and corruption.” Hippolytus, Orations Inillud, Dominus pascit me (ante A.D. 235).

“This Virgin Mother of the Only-begotten of God, is called Mary, worthy of God, immaculate of the immaculate, one of the one.” Origen, Homily 1(A.D. 244).

“Let woman praise Her, the pure Mary.” Ephraim, Hymns on the Nativity, 15:23 (A.D. 370).

“Thou alone and thy Mother are in all things fair, there is no flaw in thee and no stain in thy Mother.” Ephraem, Nisibene Hymns, 27:8 (A.D. 370).

“O noble Virgin, truly you are greater than any other greatness. For who is your equal in greatness, O dwelling place of God the Word? To whom among all creatures shall I compare you, O Virgin? You are greater than them all O Covenant, clothed with purity instead of gold! You are the Ark in which is found the golden vessel containing the true manna, that is, the flesh in which divinity resides.” Athanasius, Homily of the Papyrus of Turin, 71:216 (ante AD 373).

“Mary, a Virgin not only undefiled but a Virgin whom grace has made inviolate, free of every stain of sin.” Ambrose, Sermon 22:30 (A.D. 388).

“We must except the Holy Virgin Mary, concerning whom I wish to raise no question when it touches the subject of sins, out of honour to the Lord; for from Him we know what abundance of grace for overcoming sin in every particular was conferred upon her who had the merit to conceive and bear Him who undoubtedly had no sin.” Augustine, Nature and Grace,4 2[36] (A.D.415).

“As he formed her without my stain of her own, so He proceeded from her contracting no stain.” Proclus of Constantinople, Homily 1 (ante A.D. 446).

“A virgin, innocent, spotless, free of all defect, untouched, unsullied, holy in soul and body, like a lily sprouting among thorns.” Theodotus of Ancrya, Homily VI:11(ante A.D. 446).

“The angel took not the Virgin from Joseph, but gave her to Christ, to whom she was pledged from Joseph, but gave her to Christ, to whom she was pledged in the womb, when she was made.” Peter Chrysologus, Sermon 140 (A.D. 449).
 
((continue))

“And indeed it was a virgin, about to marry once for all after her delivery, who gave birth to Christ, in order that each title of sanctity might be fulfilled in Christ’s parentage, by means of a mother who was both virgin, and wife of one husband. Again, when He is presented as an infant in the temple, who is it who receives Him into his hands? Who is the first to recognize Him in spirit? A man just and circumspect,’ and of course no digamist, (which is plain) even (from this consideration), lest (otherwise) Christ should presently be more worthily preached by a woman, an aged widow, and the wife of one man;’ who, living devoted to the temple, was (already) giving in her own person a sufficient token what sort of persons ought to be the adherents to the spiritual temple,–that is, the Church. Such eye-witnesses the Lord in infancy found; no different ones had He in adult age." Tertullian, On Monogamy, 8 (A.D. 213).

“For if Mary, as those declare who with sound mind extol her, had no other son but Jesus, and yet Jesus says to His mother, Woman, behold thy son,’ and not Behold you have this son also,’ then He virtually said to her, Lo, this is Jesus, whom thou didst bear.’ Is it not the case that every one who is perfect lives himself no longer, but Christ lives in him; and if Christ lives in him, then it is said of him to Mary, Behold thy son Christ.’ What a mind, then, must we have to enable us to interpret in a worthy manner this work, though it be committed to the earthly treasure-house of common speech, of writing which any passer-by can read, and which can be heard when read aloud by any one who lends to it his bodily ears?” Origen, Commentary on John, I:6 (A.D. 232).

“Therefore let those who deny that the Son is from the Father by nature and proper to His Essence, deny also that He took true human flesh of Mary Ever-Virgin; for in neither case had it been of profit to us men, whether the Word were not true and naturally Son of God, or the flesh not true which He assumed.” Athanasius, Orations against the Arians, II:70 (A.D. 362).
 
The Trinity is pretty straight forward as I posted above. There is also the references to “the Spirit of the Lord” and “I and the Father are one, whomsoever has seen me has seen the father.” I’m sure that there is more such references that I’m missing, doing this off the top of my head prior to Church.

In contrast, there is nothing in the bible that supports, or contradicts, the assumption of Mary. The question of Mary remaining ever Virgin is pretty much refuted by Scripture, although enough ambiguity remains that you can’t irrefutably prove it one way or the other. The IC is least supported by Scripture. The typeology references are interesting, but don’t directly say anything in support of a doctrine that is contrary to other teachings of Scripture.
It’s important to understand what the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception is and what it is not. Some people think the term refers to Christ’s conception in Mary’s womb without the intervention of a human father; but that is the Virgin Birth. Others think the Immaculate Conception means Mary was conceived “by the power of the Holy Spirit,” in the way Jesus was, but that, too, is incorrect. The Immaculate Conception means that Mary, whose conception was brought about the normal way, was conceived without original sin or its stain—that’s what “immaculate” means: without stain. The essence of original sin consists in the deprivation of sanctifying grace, and its stain is a corrupt nature. Mary was preserved from these defects by God’s grace; from the first instant of her existence she was in the state of sanctifying grace and was free from the corrupt nature original sin brings.

When discussing the Immaculate Conception, an implicit reference may be found in the angel’s greeting to Mary. The angel Gabriel said, “Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with you” (Luke 1:28). The phrase “full of grace” is a translation of the Greek word kecharitomene. It therefore expresses a characteristic quality of Mary.

The traditional translation, “full of grace,” is better than the one found in many recent versions of the New Testament, which give something along the lines of “highly favored daughter.” Mary was indeed a highly favored daughter of God, but the Greek implies more than that (and it never mentions the word for “daughter”). The grace given to Mary is at once permanent and of a unique kind. Kecharitomene is a perfect passive participle of charitoo, meaning “to fill or endow with grace.” Since this term is in the perfect tense, it indicates that Mary was graced in the past but with continuing effects in the present. So, the grace Mary enjoyed was not a result of the angel’s visit. In fact, Catholics hold, it extended over the whole of her life, from conception onward. She was in a state of sanctifying grace from the first moment of her existence.
 
Fundamentalists’ chief reason for objecting to the Immaculate Conception and Mary’s consequent sinlessness is that we are told that “all have sinned” (Rom. 3:23). Besides, they say, Mary said her “spirit rejoices in God my Savior” (Luke 1:47), and only a sinner needs a Savior.

Let’s take the second citation first. Mary, too, required a Savior. Like all other descendants of Adam, she was subject to the necessity of contracting original sin. But by a special intervention of God, undertaken at the instant she was conceived, she was preserved from the stain of original sin and its consequences. She was therefore redeemed by the grace of Christ, but in a special way—by anticipation.

Consider an analogy: Suppose a man falls into a deep pit, and someone reaches down to pull him out. The man has been “saved” from the pit. Now imagine a woman walking along, and she too is about to topple into the pit, but at the very moment that she is to fall in, someone holds her back and prevents her. She too has been saved from the pit, but in an even better way: She was not simply taken out of the pit, she was prevented from getting stained by the mud in the first place. This is the illustration Christians have used for a thousand years to explain how Mary was saved by Christ. By receiving Christ’s grace at her conception, she had his grace applied to her before she was able to become mired in original sin and its stain.

The Catechism of the Catholic Church states that she was “redeemed in a more exalted fashion, by reason of the merits of her Son” (CCC 492). She has more reason to call God her Savior than we do, because he saved her in an even more glorious manner!

But what about Romans 3:23, “all have sinned”? Have all people committed actual sins? Consider a child below the age of reason. By definition he can’t sin, since sinning requires the ability to reason and the ability to intend to sin. This is indicated by Paul later in the letter to the Romans when he speaks of the time when Jacob and Esau were unborn babies as a time when they “had done nothing either good or bad” (Rom. 9:11).

We also know of another very prominent exception to the rule: Jesus (Heb. 4:15). So if Paul’s statement in Romans 3 includes an exception for the New Adam (Jesus), one may argue that an exception for the New Eve (Mary) can also be made.

Paul’s comment seems to have one of two meanings. It might be that it refers not to absolutely everyone, but just to the mass of mankind (which means young children and other special cases, like Jesus and Mary, would be excluded without having to be singled out). If not that, then it would mean that everyone, without exception, is subject to original sin, which is true for a young child, for the unborn, even for Mary—but she, though due to be subject to it, was preserved by God from it and its stain.

The objection is also raised that if Mary were without sin, she would be equal to God. In the beginning, God created Adam, Eve, and the angels without sin, but none were equal to God. Most of the angels never sinned, and all souls in heaven are without sin. This does not detract from the glory of God, but manifests it by the work he has done in sanctifying his creation. Sinning does not make one human. On the contrary, it is when man is without sin that he is most fully what God intends him to be.

The doctrine of the Immaculate Conception was officially defined by Pope Pius IX in 1854. When Fundamentalists claim that the doctrine was “invented” at this time, they misunderstand both the history of dogmas and what prompts the Church to issue, from time to time, definitive pronouncements regarding faith or morals. They are under the impression that no doctrine is believed until the pope or an ecumenical council issues a formal statement about it.

Actually, doctrines are defined formally only when there is a controversy that needs to be cleared up or when the magisterium (the Church in its office as teacher; cf. Matt. 28:18–20; 1 Tim. 3:15, 4:11) thinks the faithful can be helped by particular emphasis being drawn to some already-existing belief. The definition of the Immaculate Conception was prompted by the latter motive; it did not come about because there were widespread doubts about the doctrine. In fact, the Vatican was deluged with requests from people desiring the doctrine to be officially proclaimed. Pope Pius IX, who was highly devoted to the Blessed Virgin, hoped the definition would inspire others in their devotion to her.
 
The Assumption

The doctrine of the Assumption says that at the end of her life on earth Mary was assumed, body and soul, into heaven, just as Enoch, Elijah, and perhaps others had been before her. It’s also necessary to keep in mind what the Assumption is not. Some people think Catholics believe Mary “ascended” into heaven. That’s not correct. Christ, by his own power, ascended into heaven. Mary was assumed or taken up into heaven by God. She didn’t do it under her own power.

The Church has never formally defined whether she died or not, and the integrity of the doctrine of the Assumption would not be impaired if she did not in fact die, but the almost universal consensus is that she did die. Pope Pius XII, in Munificentissimus Deus (1950), defined that Mary, “after the completion of her earthly life” (note the silence regarding her death), “was assumed body and soul into the glory of heaven.”

The possibility of a bodily assumption before the Second Coming is suggested by Matthew 27:52–53: “[T]he tombs also were opened, and many bodies of the saints who had fallen asleep were raised, and coming out of the tombs after his resurrection they went into the holy city and appeared to many.” Did all these Old Testament saints die and have to be buried all over again? There is no record of that, but it is recorded by early Church writers that they were assumed into heaven, or at least into that temporary state of rest and happiness often called “paradise,” where the righteous people from the Old Testament era waited until Christ’s resurrection (cf. Luke 16:22, 23:43; Heb. 11:1–40; 1 Pet. 4:6), after which they were brought into the eternal bliss of heaven.
 
No Remains

There is also what might be called the negative historical proof for Mary’s Assumption. It is easy to document that, from the first, Christians gave homage to saints, including many about whom we now know little or nothing. Cities vied for the title of the last resting place of the most famous saints. Rome, for example, houses the tombs of Peter and Paul, Peter’s tomb being under the high altar of St. Peter’s Basilica in Rome. In the early Christian centuries relics of saints were zealously guarded and highly prized. The bones of those martyred in the Coliseum, for instance, were quickly gathered up and preserved—there are many accounts of this in the biographies of those who gave their lives for the faith.

It is agreed upon that Mary ended her life in Jerusalem, or perhaps in Ephesus. However, neither those cities nor any other claimed her remains, though there are claims about possessing her (temporary) tomb. And why did no city claim the bones of Mary? Apparently because there weren’t any bones to claim, and people knew it. Here was Mary, certainly the most privileged of all the saints, certainly the most saintly, but we have no record of her bodily remains being venerated anywhere.

Complement to the Immaculate Conception

Over the centuries, the Fathers and the Doctors of the Church spoke often about the fittingness of the privilege of Mary’s Assumption. The speculative grounds considered include Mary’s freedom from sin, her Motherhood of God, her perpetual virginity, and—the key—her union with the salvific work of Christ.

The dogma is especially fitting when one examines the honor that was given to the ark of the covenant. It contained the manna (bread from heaven), stone tablets of the ten commandments (the word of God), and the staff of Aaron (a symbol of Israel’s high priesthood). Because of its contents, it was made of incorruptible wood, and Psalm 132:8 said, “Arise, O Lord, and go to thy resting place, thou and the ark of thy might.” If this vessel was given such honor, how much more should Mary be kept from corruption, since she is the new ark—who carried the real bread from heaven, the Word of God, and the high priest of the New Covenant, Jesus Christ.

Some argue that the new ark is not Mary, but the body of Jesus. Even if this were the case, it is worth noting that 1 Chronicles 15:14 records that the persons who bore the ark were to be sanctified. There would be no sense in sanctifying men who carried a box, and not sanctifying the womb who carried God himself! After all, wisdom will not dwell “in a body under debt of sin” (Wis. 1:4 NAB).

But there is more than just fittingness. After all, if Mary is immaculately conceived, then it would follow that she would not suffer the corruption in the grave, which is a consequence of sin [Gen. 3:17, 19].

Mary’s Cooperation

Mary freely and actively cooperated in a unique way with God’s plan of salvation (Luke 1:38; Gal. 4:4). Like any mother, she was never separated from the suffering of her Son (Luke 2:35), and Scripture promises that those who share in the sufferings of Christ will share in his glory (Rom. 8:17). Since she suffered a unique interior martyrdom, it is appropriate that Jesus would honor her with a unique glory.

All Christians believe that one day we will all be raised in a glorious form and then caught up and rendered immaculate to be with Jesus forever (1 Thess. 4:17; Rev. 21:27). As the first person to say “yes” to the good news of Jesus (Luke 1:38), Mary is in a sense the prototypical Christian, and received early the blessings we will all one day be given.

The Bible Only?

Since the Immaculate Conception and Assumption are not explicit in Scripture, Fundamentalists conclude that the doctrines are false. Here, of course, we get into an entirely separate matter, the question of sola scriptura, or the Protestant “Bible only” theory. There is no room in this tract to consider that idea. Let it just be said that if the position of the Catholic Church is true, then the notion of sola scriptura is false. There is then no problem with the Church officially defining a doctrine which is not explicitly in Scripture, so long as it is not in contradiction to Scripture.

The Catholic Church was commissioned by Christ to teach all nations and to teach them infallibly—guided, as he promised, by the Holy Spirit until the end of the world (John 14:26, 16:13). The mere fact that the Church teaches that something is definitely true is a guarantee that it is true (cf. Matt. 28:18-20, Luke 10:16, 1 Tim. 3:15).
 
We both know that the word “trinity” is not in the bible. That’s not the point, lots of words are not in the bible. What is important is that the concept is in the bible…and frankly it’s in our face. We don’t have to go looking for it. As stated in the Anglican 39 Articles as one example,

“Holy Scripture containeth all things necessary to salvation: so that whatsoever is not read therein, nor may be proved thereby, is not to be required of any man, that it should be believed as an article of the Faith, or be thought requisite or necessary to salvation.” (Emphasis Added).

The doctrine of the Trinity can easily “be proven thereby”.
See we believe the same thing, this is what we are trying to tell you, the concepts of Marian beliefs are there in your face too. The concept of the IC, the assumption, and all the rest can be easily “be proven thereby”. I started with the concept of typology, more later gotta get to Mass. God bless you and yours.
 
Mannyfit75,

Thank you for your posts, they are well thought out and presented (far better than I could hope to do).

More important, Thank You for your service to our country and through you I thank your family as well!

Merry Christmas!
Tom
 
Trinity is very clear in Scripture. That we know much.

***Agreed. Nice that Catholics and Protestants can agree on some things at least, huh? 😉 🙂 ***

Do you think assuming into Heaven is against Scripture? What verse can you say that people can’t assumed into heaven? The Scripture does not even say that Mary didn’t assume into Heaven? Where in the Scripture that Mary didn’t assumed into Heaven? Your argument falls apart there.

No, my argument does not fall apart. I’ve acknowledged in previous posts, as you note, that there is nothing in the Scripture (of which I am aware at least) that contradicts the concept of the Assumption of Mary. But, also, there is nothing that proves it either. In other words, Scripture is silent on the matter. My problem is not that, based on tradition, that Catholics believe Mary to have been bodily assumed into heaven but, rather, that the Catholic Church has dogmatized the issue. Your consciences are bound as faithful Catholics. Compare that to the issue of Mary being ever Virgin. The Church clearly teaches as doctrine that she was ever virgin, but has not dogmatized whether the references in Scripture to Jesus’ brothers and sisters mean: (1) cousins or other kinsmen of Jesus or (2) Joseph’s older children by a previous marriage, i.e., Jesus’ half-siblings or (3) that, like all of us believers, we are brothers and sisters of Christ and of each other. See the difference? The particular nature of these folks are left to the conscience of the individual Catholic. Likewise, this should be the Church’s stance in other areas where Scripture is silent, such as the Assumption of Mary.
 
Again your remarks is refuted. When you read the Bible in the modern sense, you will assume that she didn’t remain a virgin. Protestants also lack the knowledge of ancient Mosaic Law…

Mark 6:3 - Jesus was always referred to as “the” son of Mary, not “a” son of Mary. Also “brothers” could have theoretically been Joseph’s children from a former marriage that was dissolved by death. However, it is most likely, perhaps most certainly, that Joseph was a virgin, just as were Jesus and Mary. As such, they embodied the true Holy Family, fully consecrated to God.

Could of been, sure. Could not have been either. There are numerous references to Jesus’ siblings in Scripture. Obviously, every one of these references must be read to mean something other than natural brother or sister in order for the Catholic understanding to be correct. Jesus’ neighbors, who should have known whether he had brothers and sisters, reference Jesus, the son of Joseph and Mary, whose brothers and sisters are here among us. If we were to use the same phraseology today in reference to our own families, we would understand the comments to refer to our natural family unless specifically stated otherwise. Ultimately, however, this is one of those issues that you can not prove, or disprove, simply from Scripture.

Luke 1:31,34 - the angel tells Mary that you “will” conceive (using the future tense). Mary responds by saying, “How shall this be?” Mary’s response demonstrates that she had taken a vow of lifelong virginity by having no intention to have relations with a man. If Mary did not take such a vow of lifelong virginity, her question would make no sense at all (for we can assume she knew how a child is conceived). She was a consecrated Temple virgin as was an acceptable custom of the times.

Where does it say in Scripture that she was a consecrated Temple virgin? It doesn’t of course. Mary was astonished at Gabriel’s pronouncement because she had not been with a man. The verse reads: “How will this be,” Mary asked the angel, “since I am a virgin?” Luke 1:34. A virgin pledged to be married to Joseph. Luke 1:27

Luke 2:41-51 - in searching for Jesus and finding Him in the temple, there is never any mention of other siblings.

So? I have three children of my own. I often speak of one, without speaking of the other.

John 19:26-27 - it would have been unthinkable for Jesus to commit the care of his mother to a friend if he had brothers.

Perhaps. But this wasn’t just anyone to whom Jesus was giving Mary. It was John, the disciple whom he loved. We know that Jesus loves everyone, so, to emphasize that he loved one person in particular, demonstrates that Jesus was very close to John. He trusted John. He knew that he could trust John to take care of his beloved and aging mother.

John 19:25 - the following verses prove that James and Joseph are Jesus’ cousins and not his brothers: Mary the wife of Clopas is the sister of the Virgin Mary.
 
Fundamentalists’ chief reason for objecting to the Immaculate Conception and Mary’s consequent sinlessness is that we are told that “all have sinned” (Rom. 3:23). Besides, they say, Mary said her “spirit rejoices in God my Savior” (Luke 1:47), and only a sinner needs a Savior.

Let’s take the second citation first. Mary, too, required a Savior. Like all other descendants of Adam, she was subject to the necessity of contracting original sin. But by a special intervention of God, undertaken at the instant she was conceived, she was preserved from the stain of original sin and its consequences. She was therefore redeemed by the grace of Christ, but in a special way—by anticipation…

But what about Romans 3:23, “all have sinned”? Have all people committed actual sins? Consider a child below the age of reason. By definition he can’t sin, since sinning requires the ability to reason and the ability to intend to sin. This is indicated by Paul later in the letter to the Romans when he speaks of the time when Jacob and Esau were unborn babies as a time when they “had done nothing either good or bad” (Rom. 9:11).

We also know of another very prominent exception to the rule: Jesus (Heb. 4:15). So if Paul’s statement in Romans 3 includes an exception for the New Adam (Jesus), one may argue that an exception for the New Eve (Mary) can also be made.

Paul’s comment seems to have one of two meanings. It might be that it refers not to absolutely everyone, but just to the mass of mankind (which means young children and other special cases, like Jesus and Mary, would be excluded without having to be singled out). If not that, then it would mean that everyone, without exception, is subject to original sin, which is true for a young child, for the unborn, even for Mary—but she, though due to be subject to it, was preserved by God from it and its stain.
Manyfit,
You’ve done a yeoman’s work on the IC here and I’m not going to respond to most of it. I think the heart of the matter is tied up in the verses you cite above. In Romans, we are told that all have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God. We are also told that there is no one who does good, no one. Jesus is the known except to the word “all”. How do we know this? Because elsewhere in Scripture we are told that Jesus was without sin. So we know that “all” does not mean Christ. As for babies and the mentally defective? They are stained by original sin, if not actual sin since they are not capable of actual sin. Mary? She was an adult and certainly mentally competent. As such, we have to understand that she is subject to “all have sinned” unless, as with Christ, we are shown elsewhere that Mary is an exception to “all”. That takes us to “full of grace”, doesn’t it? (Or “highly favored one” depending on your translation). Let’s use “full of grace” because that is how Catholic scholars believe the words should be translated into English. At the time of Mary’s Magnificat, she was “full of grace” but also acknowledged that she needed a “savior”. The pit analogy is interesting but, again, without any Scriptural support. As humans we can be filled with the Holy Spirit and full of grace, and the Spirit and the grace can leave us. After you confess your sins at the Sacrament of Reconciliation, are not you in a state of grace? You are until you sin again. With Mary, we are not given enough grounds in Scripture to believe that she has been made an exception to the rule that applies to every other of the billions of human being born into this world, with the exception of Christ.
 
The Trinity is pretty straight forward as I posted above. There is also the references to “the Spirit of the Lord” and “I and the Father are one, whomsoever has seen me has seen the father.” I’m sure that there is more such references that I’m missing, doing this off the top of my head prior to Church.
This is all very obvious to you and you can clearly see the Trinity in the Bible because the matter was settled well over a millenium ago by the Catholic Church in reaction to challenges to this Sacred Tradition by heretical sects. The theology of the Trinity is not in the Bible, only references to the Trinity are in the Bible, which require our knowledge of Sacred Tradition to understand the full context of “I and the Father are one”, etc. You are taking for granted knowledge that comes to you from Sacred Tradition, not the Bible. I would invite you to do a deeper study of the heresies that arose around the question of the nature of the Trinity in the hopes that you will realize you are drawing on Sacred Tradition.
 
Manyfit,
You’ve done a yeoman’s work on the IC here and I’m not going to respond to most of it. I think the heart of the matter is tied up in the verses you cite above. In Romans, we are told that all have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God. We are also told that there is no one who does good, no one. Jesus is the known except to the word “all”. How do we know this? Because elsewhere in Scripture we are told that Jesus was without sin. So we know that “all” does not mean Christ. As for babies and the mentally defective? They are stained by original sin, if not actual sin since they are not capable of actual sin. Mary? She was an adult and certainly mentally competent. As such, we have to understand that she is subject to “all have sinned” unless, as with Christ, we are shown elsewhere that Mary is an exception to “all”. That takes us to “full of grace”, doesn’t it? (Or “highly favored one” depending on your translation). Let’s use “full of grace” because that is how Catholic scholars believe the words should be translated into English. At the time of Mary’s Magnificat, she was “full of grace” but also acknowledged that she needed a “savior”. The pit analogy is interesting but, again, without any Scriptural support. As humans we can be filled with the Holy Spirit and full of grace, and the Spirit and the grace can leave us. After you confess your sins at the Sacrament of Reconciliation, are not you in a state of grace? You are until you sin again. With Mary, we are not given enough grounds in Scripture to believe that she has been made an exception to the rule that applies to every other of the billions of human being born into this world, with the exception of Christ.
Here is the key: The Catholic Church does not teach that Mary was not in need of a Savior. Indeed she was. But she was saved by Christ in anticipation of her role as the Mother of God at her conception. She was free from the stain of original sin at conception and was full of grace (in the state of Adam and Eve before the Fall) her entire life. Our souls are not bound to earth’s time and Christ’s saving grace is for all time. Mary benefitted from His sacrifice in a very unique and special way. You seem to believe that Mary was saved by Christ at the Annunciation (“full of grace” cannot mean “with original sin”). So, we both agree that she was free from original sin before Christ had even been born. The question then becomes a matter of when that saving grace washed her clean of original sin. I say at conception. You seem to be saying at the Annunciation.
 
Here is the key: The Catholic Church does not teach that Mary was not in need of a Savior. Indeed she was. But she was saved by Christ in anticipation of her role as the Mother of God at her conception. She was free from the stain of original sin at conception and was full of grace (in the state of Adam and Eve before the Fall) her entire life. Our souls are not bound to earth’s time and Christ’s saving grace is for all time. Mary benefitted from His sacrifice in a very unique and special way. You seem to believe that Mary was saved by Christ at the Annunciation (“full of grace” cannot mean “with original sin”). So, we both agree that she was free from original sin before Christ had even been born. The question then becomes a matter of when that saving grace washed her clean of original sin. I say at conception. You seem to be saying at the Annunciation.
You note that Adam and Eve were without the stain of original sin before the fall…yet they sinned and introduced the curse of original sin, death, into the world. As believers, we are without the stain of original sin (although still subject to the consequences of original sin…death) once we are washed clean through baptism…yet we still sin. I believe that as blessed and as holy a saint that Mary was, and remains in heaven today (for she is surely there, whether in body as you preach or spirit only), that Mary’s time here on earth remained subject to Paul’s assertion that “all have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God”.
 
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