When you use the phrase “homosexual behavior” are you talking about both males and females, or just one sex?
Chaste behavior isn’t limited to one gender.
I was referring to both sexes, as I understand that the scriptural prohibition does also.
Well in your previous post you mentioned the Old Testament prohibition against “homosexual behavior”. Perhaps you can show me where [unlike beastiallity where God repeatedly forbade both sexes, not just in Leviticus (addressing the priestly Levetical Law Code, or in Exodus (to the Isrealites leaving Egypt), and also in Deuteronomy ( to the Isrealites entering the Promised Land)] in the Old Testament women were included within the so-called “homosexuality prohibition”.
The focus here is “homosexual behavior”, and the so-called Old Testament reference to it, not the more generalized, non-disputed notion of “chaste behavior”. Please stick to the subject matter at hand.
What angle are you coming at this from? Both are quite clearly forbidden in the New Testament. Why is this such a concern (I’m genuinely curious)?
Only from the angle of truth.
I’m not an expert on the subject and am very happy to be corrected by one who is. My understanding is that you are correct–the specific prohibition in the Old Testament referred to male homosexual acts. The New Testament specifically includes those acts involving women also. Logic would seem to thereby include lesbianism in condemnation also.
Even if that is true, the Church has ruled definitively on the matter - so if we had a discussion on this, we’d probably have different assumptions with regards to Magisterial Teaching authority. I think there are some more fundamental issues that need to be discussed before this line of reasoning can be profitable.
Paul I so appreciate your humble response!! There are many people, both on and off these forums, who have been very caviler in throwing around these unscriptural accusations and perspectives against innocent Christians with devasting and damaging effects. Thank you for not doing that!
So would you be suggesting that the scriptural facts as contained within history can be altered? Of course not! Nevertheless, you would have no choice but to, at the very least, recognize that there is deffinately a difference between “scripture and homosexuality” and “church-teaching and homosexuality”.
No, but I would suggest that the written scriptures are not an exhaustive account of God’s revelation, and it would certainly be a stretch to say that the Bible presents homosexual acts in a positive light (or, I believe, that it is even silent on the issue: even if it were, that would make no difference to the Church’s ability to rule infallibly on the matter). The difference, if there is any, is superficial at best, since the Church is the only body with the authority to definitively interpret scripture.
Well, all this is mute anyway-- the infallible teaching of the Church has always been that all male and female homosexual acts are disordered and mortally sinful (unless there are mitigating factors).
In certain respects you are absolutely right. With respect to the Church and what it teaches, your post above gets no disagrement from me. But with respect to Sacred Scripture and the biblical facts provided within it, your post above is a clear proclamation that there are differences between “church teaching and homosexuality” versus “scripture and homosexuality”. And the facts found within scripture do a remarkable job at bringing the lies found within certain religious teachings to the surface.
Its not very complicated. Marriage is only between man and woman. Sexual activity is restricted to husband and wife. This is clear in scripture.