Here’s what the Catholic Church proclaims you must do/believe in order to receive salvation: We are saved: By believing in Christ (Jn 3:16; Acts 16:31)
But apparently one doesn’t need to have an explicit faith in Christ as the invincibly ignorant can also be saved.
By repentance (Acts 2:38; 2 Pet 3:9)
Here I agree that repentance is inseparable from saving faith. Curiously, however, the Catholic Church does seem to separate the act or repentance from both belief and baptism, whereas scripture so often conjoins the three. In fact, the normative pattern for most Catholics is to be baptized without repentance, whereas the normative pattern that we seen in the New Testament is for baptism to follow both belief and repentance.
By baptism (Jn 3:5; 1 Pet 3:21; Titus 3:5)
Which, strictly speaking, isn’t needed for salvation at all. For Catholics, the mere desire for baptism is enough. In fact, in the case of the invincibly ignorant, they don’t even need an explicit desire for baptism. They just need to follow the light that they were given. But of course these are the exceptions, not the rule. But even in the case of the vast majority who are baptized, baptism itself doesn’t save–not even in Catholic theology. What it does is put one in the state of sanctifying grace. So long as you don’t sin after this, baptism can save you. But if you do sin after baptism, can no longer save you. For now you will need another sacrament to deal with post-baptismal (mortal) sin. This seems to force the conclusion that the baptized Catholic who receives sacramental absolution from a mortal sin is no better off than the invincibly ignorant unbeliever who has never been baptized in the first place, yet somehow has managed to attain the sate of grace by obeying the dictates of conscience. (By the way–the only unambiguous reference to baptism is 1 Peter 3:21, as neither John 3:5 nor Titus 3:5 are unequivocal references to baptism–and indeed probably are not).
By eating his flesh and drinking his blood (Jn 6)
Of course no Catholic really believes this. For one–how many times is it necessary? Does going to communion once suffice? What if one dies prior to making his/her first communion, yet is in the state of grace? And of course, our invincibly ignorant brethren must likewise be exempt from this requirement. After all, they don’t even need to believe in Jesus to go to heaven, so why would they need to take communion? On another note, it is hardly clear that John 6 is about the Eucharist at all. So making it a requirement for salvation is dubious on exegetical grounds alone. But what it is about–namely coming to and believing in Jesus–is clear. And so the Biblical and specifically Johanine requirement to have an explicit faith in Christ is absolutely necessary for salvation.
Of course, most of the things on this list are only the
normative requirements for being a good Catholic, not the
absolute requirements for going to heaven. But a
normative requirement really is not requirement at all, once we begin to allow for multiple exceptions to the rule. This, the Catholic Church has done, having changed its old exclusivist claims (no Salvation outside the Church) for a normative view wherein faith in Christ is constitutive of salvation for anyone who goes to heaven, especially those who believe in Him. So the good Buddhist and conscientious Hindu can–by the objective grace obtained at the cross–go to heaven, even without having an explicit faith in Christ. That is the Gospel according to Vatican II, anyway. For a different view, try John 14.