Hello, Spirithound here, Master’s candidate of linguistics.
The name of the Christian gentleman to whom you are referring is Kepha. That’s
[velar stop][vowel][bilabial stop or fricative or labiodental fricative][vowel]. (sorry, my Aramaic isn’t up to par…)
The “god” is Ptah. That’s
[bilabial stop][alveolar stop][vowel].
You’ll note that the velar region is much further back in the mouth than the bilabial place of articulation, thus an evolution of that sort is highly unlikely.
The comparison you’re trying to make is only even marginally tenable in the Romance languages and Romance-influenced languages, and that connection is even strained. Think about this: Peter, Pedro, Pierre. All of them have a rhotic consonant. The Egyptian does not. If there were a connection of any sort, we would expect the Egyptian to have the rhotic consonant too. These things don’t just pop up by accident in each of the “daughter languages” (which Romance and English, which are Indo-European languages, are not, in relation to Ancient Egyptian, which is an Afro-Asiatic language).
Finally, if all that was not enough, do you have any evidence that Ptah was even worshipped in Egypt into the time that Peter lived? Do you have further evidence that the early Christians knew about it? In order to cast any aspersions on Peter, you need to prove proximity of the 2 names, which linguistically I have just demolished, geographically is quite questionable, religiously is absurd, and chronologically is…what? You fill in the last adjective. Furthermore, you need to show causality. That those 2 are the same person. Which means that the Gospels are lies. All lies.
