S
SyroMalankara
Guest
How did it do so in the 3rd Cent?nope: that conclusion does come from my statements
The Church CANNOT grant authority to Scripture any mmore than I can
How did it do so in the 3rd Cent?nope: that conclusion does come from my statements
The Church CANNOT grant authority to Scripture any mmore than I can
alwayswill, we agree on this. The Church assents the the Scriptures as being free from error in faith and morals. Plus it is also the bulk of divine revelation! Plus it is God Breathed and inspired! Plus we cannot contradict Scripture in belief or practice! We also know that the Church did not make Scripture this, but God has!The Church CANNOT grant authority to Scripture any mmore than I can
Isn’t that the entire premise that we disagree on? Restating it does nothing to prove your assertion.And you Church can’t guarantee that anyone interprets infallible or authoritative Church teachings correctly.
You may want to double check that.How did it do so in the 3rd Cent?
Your premise that someone misunderstanding an authority reduces the authority is false.Isn’t that the entire premise that we disagree on? Restating it does nothing to prove your assertion.
Well, recognized the authority of which books constitute Scripture… to be specific. So how did the 3rd Cent Church do that?You may want to double check that.
I don’t think well-Catechized Catholics would ever say the Church granted authority to Scripture:
I never made such an assertion.Your premise that someone misunderstanding an authority reduces the authority is false.
the same way the 1000BC believers recognized ScriptureWell, recognized the authority of which books constitute Scripture… to be specific. So how did the 3rd Cent Church do that?
which is?the same way the 1000BC believers recognized Scripture
the same way the 100AD church recognized it.
Right… not sure where that came from.I never made such an assertion.
What is your definition of “authority”?Scripture carries the same authority as God speaking from His throne.
There is no authority higher than Scripture.
I would say the the same thing about Scripture whether it is the Chronicles of Adam or Third Corinthians,
There would be no point in it being Scripture if nobody but John ever saw it. The definition of Scripture is, that which is suitable to be read out in the Christian liturgy during the Proclamation of the Word of God, to instruct the Catechumens and the People of God. (Paraphrasing.)I would say the the same thing about Scripture if the only eyes to see Revelation were John’s.
I would say the the same thing about Scripture about the book of Isaiah the moment it was written.
In order to be recognized as Scripture, human beings must have both the authority and the ability to recognize them as such, without error (that is, infallibly.)Writings breathed out by God are NOT dependent on anyone’s tradition or authority to be Scripture.
The Spirit of God working through His peoplewhich is?
Not sure what you are misunderstanding. Yes Paul and the Lord made it authoritative. But because Paul was Catholic, and you have a copy of His letter, does not make you equal in revelational authority to His divine letter. That is all I was trying to say(The CC three legged stool, the idea that Tradition is of equal revelation to Writ is what I am trying to demonstrate is *not *the case thru my Corinthian quip.)Wait… what? The Corinthian Church did not hold up themselves up as equal to St. Paul’s letter because of St. Paul, not the letter. The Apostle-Bishop’s authority is what had it authoritative
Do not think so. Perhaps you misunderstand SS. Here is a good site to explain what SS is and more importantly what it should not be.- modernreformation.org/default.php?page=articledisplay&var2=19That seems like a Semi-SS position
Nothing stops free will/magisterium from wrongly dividing Writ. But I agree with you here. In fact, perhaps SS came about because reformers said the same thing about the disputed practices and their doctrines of their times and church.However to state that SS is “primary” seems like a word-game, since in practice, the church authorities (which ever church) can justify their actions/decision one way or the other and can use any verse that fits their cause.
Who are ‘His people’ and which people are not of Him?The Spirit of God working through His people
Having a copy of Scripture is not what makes the Church or Tradition equal in standing. It is equal in standing because the Scriptures flow out of Tradition, and are recognized as having pre-eminence due to Inspiration. The teaching actually elevates Scripture out of being beneath the inspired Sacred Tradition it comes from, up to a level equal to it.Not sure what you are misunderstanding. Yes Paul and the Lord made it authoritative. But because Paul was Catholic, and you have a copy of His letter, does not make you equal in revelational authority to His divine letter. That is all I was trying to say(The CC three legged stool, the idea that Tradition is of equal revelation to Writ is what I am trying to demonstrate is *not *the case thru my Corinthian quip.)
Followed by others saying the same thing about them, using their methodology. So where does it end?Nothing stops free will/magisterium from wrongly dividing Writ. But I agree with you here. In fact, perhaps SS came about because reformers said the same thing about the disputed practices and their doctrines of their times and church.
Hi clem,You hear this literally all the timeThe bible is discussed as if it sprang out of the hair of the apostles
With the one big caveat, that began this whole mess , the capital “T” in tradition, that the holder/community of OT/apostloic /writ is equal in revelational authority.Many people will admit the scriptures were taken from Tradition, but only when the logical dead end is pointed out and there is nowhere else to go.
Straw man . As if OT writ were what ? As if apostles and their writ are not one ? Especially thereafter. Your poke might be more real if this was more like OT times and the canon was still being written, and revelation not finished.How can the community be guided by the superlative authority of Writ, when there was no writ for decades, at the very least.
And there ya go. You have met someone.
Who is stating this? No Apostolic Church claims new revelation, only the authority to clarify and discern rightly. There is no new revelation. Hence the rejection of Muhammad, Joe Smith, Bahaullah, and the rest.Yes, equal to Peter and Paul in proclamation of same revelational gospel but not in new divine revelational source. Tradition/community does not equal Writ for revelational source, in my opinion.
Blessings
If we cannot know what is Scripture without the authority of the Church, how do we know the Church has the authority it claims?So how do we know Jesus’ infallible, authorative declaration concerning the canon? How do we know the Church got it right? Is it possible the Church is using wrong Scriptures or should be using ones that are right?
The Church’s authority comes from Christ, not the Holy Scriptures. The Holy Scriptures show us in written form what Christ already makes known to His community through the New Covenant.If we cannot know what is Scripture without the authority of the Church, how do we know the Church has the authority it claims?