SSPX and faculties for absolution

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On another unrelated thread, the topic drifted to whether the SSPX has faculties to absolve sin. I have heard two different canon lawyers state “no”, one of which was a bishop. So rather than continue allowing this relative new poster to derail the thread, I thought I would restart this over here. Since I am only an “armchair theologian” as BrendanD labeled me, I thought I would bring in the reason why I believe they have no faculties and tie it into canon law.

jimmyakin.org/2005/02/sspx_confession.html

Here is an answer from the AAA forum.

forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=44289
 
From my armchair, I would say that by the concept of Opus Operandi, the person’s sins would be forgiven, though the priest himself might be in trouble for doing so.

The tricky part is their irregular canonical state.
 
The SSPX position is here:
sspx.org/miscellaneous/supplied_jurisdiction.htm
I have no idea whether it is they or Jimmy Akin that is correct though.

This info from their website also seems relevant:
On this point, let me tell you about the bishops from Gabon (Africa) going to Rome to ask about the validity and lawfulness of the sacraments administered by our mission priests there and whether they should record them in the sacramental registers of that country’s local churches. Rome answered that the sacraments of the Society must be recorded in the local registers. “Also the marriages?” the bishops asked. “Yes,” said Rome.
If their marriages were invalid, why would Rome instruct bishops to record them in the sacramental registers?
 
If their marriages were invalid, why would Rome instruct bishops to record them in the sacramental registers?
That is a good question. The authority of absolution is tied to the authority of the keys of the kingdom and the Chair of Peter. That is why facilities are needed. However, marriage is a sacrament between two people and no authority is needed. On the other hand, Catholics are bound to follow the Catholic form of marriage.

So, do SSPX chapels qualify? If they do, then the marriages are valid. If the do not, then wouldn’t attendees be in the same situation as former Catholics, now Baptist that marry in the Baptist Church? That marriage is presumed to be valid.
 
That is a good question. The authority of absolution is tied to the authority of the keys of the kingdom and the Chair of Peter. That is why facilities are needed. However, marriage is a sacrament between two people and no authority is needed. On the other hand, Catholics are bound to follow the Catholic form of marriage.
My understanding so far is that marriage between Catholics requires jurisdiction just like confession. Of course like you said, a marriage between Baptists doesn’t, because they aren’t subject to the Church’s laws.
If the do not, then wouldn’t attendees be in the same situation as former Catholics, now Baptist that marry in the Baptist Church? That marriage is presumed to be valid.
I think Jimmy Akin’s article argues against that. He says that since SSPX priests are Catholics, they’re bound by the Church’s requirements for faculties.
 
So, do SSPX chapels qualify? If they do, then the marriages are valid. If the do not, then wouldn’t attendees be in the same situation as former Catholics, now Baptist that marry in the Baptist Church? That marriage is presumed to be valid.
I do not think that the overwhelming majority of canonists would conclude that priests of this group possess any faculties to validly absolve or to validly assist at marriages. In fact, one of the major SSPX pages virtually concedes this and relies on the SSPX interpretation that the Church itself supplies faculties through a recourse to the old principle of “ecclesia supplet” and to the notions of common error or some “emergency in the Church” (which was expressly rejected by the supreme legislator). Again, outside of the SSPX, these arguments have not gained acceptance by authorities or experts. The assertion of faculties is asserted without respite by supported of the society, of course.

However, the question is further complicated by the question of when two particular adherents of the society became baptized and who did it. For example, arguments have been considered that if two persons were baptized by an priest of the society, they did not become enrolled into the Latin Catholic Church and were not bound to the form of marriage required in the code of canon law for the Latin Church.

A lamentable and sticky situation, to say the least.
 
John Salza has written a response to Jimmy Akin’s arguments–you can get it from Bob Sungenis’ web site. I personally didn’t find Salza’s argumetns all that great. However, there does appear to be a case for both sides of the issue.
 
The odd thing about the SSPX is that because they are still members of the Catholic Church (with irregular priests and excommunicated bishops), they are subject to Canon Law (1983 Code). Therefore, since their irregular priests do not have faculties to absolve, or delegation to assist at marriages, their absolutions and the marriages at which they assist are invalid (except in danger of death). If they were to go into formal schism, then these sacraments would be validly administered within the SSPX, since the restrictions of the 1983 Code would no longer apply.

God bless,

Fr. Boyd
 
. . . If they were to go into formal schism, then these sacraments would be validly administered within the SSPX, since the restrictions of the 1983 Code would no longer apply.
I do not think that I would read the law that way. They would remain Catholic and continue to be subject to the law of the Church on the basis of canon 11. This would be true even if a latae sententiae excommunication were declared or if their clerics were dismissed from the clerical state on the basis of culpable formal schism (see c. 1364 for the scope of all that).

The infliction of a canonical penalty is not intended to create an exemption from the law of the Church so as to provide faculties, benefits or privileges. Otherwise, we would have the paradox of the law sanating misbehavior of the highest magnitude.

In any case, one fervently prays for their reconciliation to the Church and hope that situation would not come to pass.
 
I do not think that I would read the law that way. They would remain Catholic and continue to be subject to the law of the Church on the basis of canon 11. This would be true even if a latae sententiae excommunication were declared or if their clerics were dismissed from the clerical state on the basis of culpable formal schism (see c. 1364 for the scope of all that).

The infliction of a canonical penalty is not intended to create an exemption from the law of the Church so as to provide faculties, benefits or privileges. Otherwise, we would have the paradox of the law sanating misbehavior of the highest magnitude.

In any case, one fervently prays for their reconciliation to the Church and hope that situation would not come to pass.
While naturally all right thinking Catholics desire that the SSPX come back into full union with the Church, and are in no way advocating a formal schism; nevertheless, the fact remains that the 1983 Code of Canon Law applies to members of the Latin Church only:

Can. 1 The canons of this Code concern only the latin Church.

The state of schism is not a canonical penalty; it is a formal separation with the Catholic Church that is initiated by the party who is leaving. Penalties only make sense for those who wish to still be part of the Church in some way; for those in formal schism, such penalties would be meaningful only for those who seek to reconcile with the Church. If the SSPX were to go into formal schism, they would no longer be subject to the Code, since they would have left the Latin Church by a formal act. This new SSPX church would then be in the same situation as the Orthodox Church or the Polish National Church, whose sacraments of Confession and Marriage are valid.
 
While naturally all right thinking Catholics desire that the SSPX come back into full union with the Church, and are in no way advocating a formal schism; nevertheless, the fact remains that the 1983 Code of Canon Law applies to members of the Latin Church only:

Can. 1 The canons of this Code concern only the latin Church.

The state of schism is not a canonical penalty; it is a formal separation with the Catholic Church that is initiated by the party who is leaving. Penalties only make sense for those who wish to still be part of the Church in some way; for those in formal schism, such penalties would be meaningful only for those who seek to reconcile with the Church. If the SSPX were to go into formal schism, they would no longer be subject to the Code, since they would have left the Latin Church by a formal act. This new SSPX church would then be in the same situation as the Orthodox Church or the Polish National Church, whose sacraments of Confession and Marriage are valid.
I distinguished implicitly between a state of schism and canonical penalty (“even if”) and agree with you in that regard.

The declaration of canon 1 is taken by canonists and commentaries to distinguish its scope from that pertaining to the Eastern Catholic Churches. It simply tells us that it is not the source of law for the Eastern Catholic Churches. Canon 1 of the 1917 code suggested otherwise in the minds of some. The new formulation resolved any question.

Both Churches which you identify left the Catholic Church prior to the codification of canon law. Perhaps this might have some usefulness in coming to understand the issue.

However, looking at canon 11 of the present code, I would be at a loss to understand why the SSPX would not fall into its categories:

“Merely ecclesiastical laws bind those who have been baptized in the Catholic Church or received into it, possess the sufficient use of reason and, unless the law expressly provides otherwise, have completed seven years of age.”

Perhaps you might suggest a basis of insight by which my understanding is defective.

Indeed, even an act of formal defection (which supposes an act of schism, heresy or apostasy) results only in three exceptions related to marriage law (clsa.org/content/files/USCCB_memo_2006_0405.pdf). It does not create exceptions in other cases.
 
I distinguished implicitly between a state of schism and canonical penalty (“even if”) and agree with you in that regard.

The declaration of canon 1 is taken by canonists and commentaries to distinguish its scope from that pertaining to the Eastern Catholic Churches. It simply tells us that it is not the source of law for the Eastern Catholic Churches. Canon 1 of the 1917 code suggested otherwise in the minds of some. The new formulation resolved any question.

Both Churches which you identify left the Catholic Church prior to the codification of canon law. Perhaps this might have some usefulness in coming to understand the issue.

However, looking at canon 11 of the present code, I would be at a loss to understand why the SSPX would not fall into its categories:

“Merely ecclesiastical laws bind those who have been baptized in the Catholic Church or received into it, possess the sufficient use of reason and, unless the law expressly provides otherwise, have completed seven years of age.”

Perhaps you might suggest a basis of insight by which my understanding is defective.

Indeed, even an act of formal defection (which supposes an act of schism, heresy or apostasy) results only in three exceptions related to marriage law (clsa.org/content/files/USCCB_memo_2006_0405.pdf). It does not create exceptions in other cases.
I believe the very fact that, in the exceptions to the marriage law which you state, there is implicit the concept of defecting from the Catholic Church by means of a formal act, this is sufficient to suppose that one may leave the Church and no longer be subject to the 1983 Code. Certainly, there are exceptions to Canon 11; e.g., one who was baptized in the Roman rite may change rites and hence, Canon 11 would no longer apply to that person. You may at least take the marriage canons as supplemental law. I see no reason to suppose that 1983 ended the possibility of a new schismatic Church arising which may be in the same condition as the Orthodox Church or the Polish National Church. I suppose Rome would ultimately need to rule in this case, but, unfortunately, in light of recent events, it seems that all the conditions exist for the makings of a new schismatic church with the SSPX.
 
*“I believe the very fact that, in the exceptions to the marriage law which you state, there is implicit the concept of defecting from the Catholic Church by means of a formal act, this is sufficient to suppose that one may leave the Church and no longer be subject to the 1983 Code.” *

I think this means to assert, that the very existence of three exceptions for marriage imply that such departure carries with it total exemption from all Church law. I will take it that canon 1 is now clarified but return to the OC and PNC below.

Exceptions are exactly that, exceptions, and should not be extrapolated or extended beyond their proper scope. My thoughts continue to be that in the interpretation of canon law, “in tres” does not equate to “in omnibus.” Let us explore that.
  1. The concept of defection by a formal act is quite explicitly and directly treated in the code and the declaration to which I have linked. The declaration limits the exceptions to only three marriage laws provided in canons 1086, 1117 and 1124. Neither the code nor the declaration says anything about removing any objective obligation to the rest of the law of the Church. Even in these cases, it still applies the law in order to make the exemptions.
a. Those canons only address the situation of marriage for an individual who defects by a formal act and not of that of a group electing schism. The first canon pertains to the matter of only one ecclesiastical diriment impediment, the second canon to canonical form, and the third canon to mixed marriage. Canon 17 requires that they must be placed in that context to be properly interpreted.

b. No other exemption from ecclesiastical law is mentioned for a person who has defected by a formal act. For example, the impediment of holy orders remains (c. 1087), as does the impediment public perpetual vow of chastity in a religious institute (c. 1088).

“Certainly, there are exceptions to Canon 11; e.g., one who was baptized in the Roman rite may change rites and hence, Canon 11 would no longer apply to that person.”
  1. This overlooks the broader point that such a person continues to be subject to the Catholic Church even though belonging to a different autonomous Church. Moreover, the example of a change of enrollment from the Latin Church to an Eastern Church does not provide such an exception that supports the position. In such a case, canon 1490 of the Eastern Canons, which is identical to the parallel canon 11 of the Latin code, would then apply.
    “Merely ecclesiastical laws bind those baptized in the Catholic Church or received into it, who have sufficient use of reason and, unless the law itself expressly provides otherwise, who have completed their seventh year of age.”
  2. The common opinion of experts regarding canon 11 is illustrated in two well known commentaries on the canon.
“In principle, Catholics who later abandoned the faith are not excluded from subjection to it” (Caparros et al., eds., Code of Canon Law Annotated, 1995)

“Once a Catholic by baptism or reception one always remains a Catholic. Even those who have joined another religion, have become atheists or agnostics, or have been excommunicated remain Catholics. Excommunicates lose rights . . . but they are still bound to the obligations of the law.” (Beal et al., eds., CLSA Commentary, 2000)

“You may at least take the marriage canons as supplemental law.”
  1. I am unclear what this signifies unless meant to reference the sense of canon 19. That canon which gives norms for interpreting when there is a lacuna legis but I do not see where there is one in this situation. Perhaps someone else does.
  2. The marriage canons provide exceptions to the law, and exceptions are subject to strict interpretation (c. 18). They should not be stretched beyond what they treat.
  3. Then, too, if “one may leave the Church and no longer be subject to the 1983 Code”, the 1983 code would have said nothing about a number of situations. Yet it did speak to them and we cannot presume the legislator intended laws without meaning on moot issues.
a. For example, in the case of a cleric who defects, the law provides that he is automatically removed from an ecclesiastical office (c. 194). Further, a person who abandons ecclesiastical communion with the Church is prohibited from joining a public association of the faithful and be dismissed from one (c. 316).

b. We also have the latae sententiae censure referenced earlier in the thread. Why did the legislator bother to create a censure for the delict of schism if schism makes a person no longer subject to the law of the Church (schism being among the conditions which the declaration supposes for defection by a formal act)?

“I see no reason to suppose that 1983 ended the possibility of a new schismatic Church arising which may be in the same condition as the Orthodox Church or the Polish National Church. I suppose Rome would ultimately need to rule in this case, but, unfortunately, in light of recent events, it seems that all the conditions exist for the makings of a new schismatic church with the SSPX”
  1. While the conditions for organized schism may exist, we should recall that these two historical divisions of the Catholic Church predated even the 1917 code. The doctrine of Vatican II (LG 8, UR 3) would have related to them as existing Churches and ecclesial communities not in communion with the Catholic Church at the time, and that is reflected in the current practice of the Holy See about sacraments in which faculties are needed. However, the council did not seem to be entertaining provision for the creation of separated Churches in the future.
  2. Should a deplorable break occur, the Holy See may treat the SSPX as it now treats the OC and PNC, but I can only present the reasons why it would likely not do so on the basis of those canons of exception or on the basis of a declared censure arising from the delict of schism. In either case it is wise to recall those pertain to individuals.
 
Robert Sungenis on his website, provides a point/counterpoint debate between John Salza, a traditional apologist, and Jimmy Akin.

John Salza is responding to the points that Jimmy Akin makes on his website:

catholicintl.com/catholicissues/sspxconfessions.pdf
Isn’t Sungenis the one that still thinks the Earth revolves around the sun?

I have seen this “debate” before. Either it is severly edited or it is like no debate I have seen where one side (guess which) is given much greater time to present its case.
 
  1. While the conditions for organized schism may exist, we should recall that these two historical divisions of the Catholic Church predated even the 1917 code. The doctrine of Vatican II (LG 8, UR 3) would have related to them as existing Churches and ecclesial communities not in communion with the Catholic Church at the time, and that is reflected in the current practice of the Holy See about sacraments in which faculties are needed. However, the council did not seem to be entertaining provision for the creation of separated Churches in the future.
I can see the power of governance/jurisdiction for the OC in UR 16 and OE 5, but I’m having a hard time coming to the same conclusion for the PNC based on LG 8 and UR 3. In particular, if the statement in UR 16 was meant to apply to the PNC as well, why did the council fathers explicitly name the OC in that statement?

Is this a modern interpretation of Vatican II that is starting to come into vogue, akin to the 2005 recognition of the marriage law of other ecclesial communities in Dignitatis connubii?
 
  1. Should a deplorable break occur, the Holy See may treat the SSPX as it now treats the OC and PNC, but I can only present the reasons why it would likely not do so on the basis of those canons of exception or on the basis of a declared censure arising from the delict of schism. In either case it is wise to recall those pertain to individuals.*
In the end, such a horrible case of a new, schismatic church coming into existence may indeed be beyond the scope of the Code, and I believe that the lawgiver himself (i.e., the pope) would have to make a ruling. Let’s pray that this need not occur.
 
In the end, such a horrible case of a new, schismatic church coming into existence may indeed be beyond the scope of the Code, and I believe that the lawgiver himself (i.e., the pope) would have to make a ruling. Let’s pray that this need not occur.
Amen, amen. Ad multos annos.
 
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