In the case of the Orthodox, yes.
And also in the case of the “Old Catholics” (who disagreed, I think, with Vatican I). There may be other, smaller groups, as well. I’m just trying to work out a point.
but do you disagree that we have lost our way in the last 40 years?
I would say we have all
but lost the way; luckily we have had the SSPX and others to be the “thorn in our side”. As for the “dumbing down of the Mass” and the “ambiguous and protestant-pleasing … Eucharistic Prayers”, certainly these have not succeeded in making the Church more “palatable” to non-Catholics. I would hazard a guess that the changes the Catholic Church has gone through has made her look like “just another church” to the Protestants rather than the
one Church which should desire to be in communion with. I wonder if these massive alterations impact the degree of their culpability for not entering into her.
I’ve had a lot of reading lately and obviously confused my source for it.
I admit the “brought to perfection” part
did sound familiar, but I accept your retraction.
at what point did “qui pro vobis et pro multis effeundetur in remissionem peccatorum” become for all? Because you haven’t made clear the distinction.
I don’t know if you’re talking about a translation issue or are using those words to describe the situation I presented. Let’s continue speaking plainly and clearly about the matter at hand.
I have not yet ventured to make the distinction. I’m still asking questions about where and how Christ operates. At the end of my last post, I had three questions, and you answered one (or two) of them with “of course he does”.
- Does Jesus Christ “operate” outside his Church?
- Is he working to bring people to salvation before they’ve entered his Church?
- Is the Church of Christ present where Christ is operating?
The third question, then, remains unanswered. Now, I want to be guileless in these proceedings, so let me give the third question some context. I am not trying to get you to admit that a Protestant community is (or subsists in!) the Church of Christ. I am simply asking if, when the
sacrament of baptism is performed outside the boundaries of the Catholic Church, the Church of Christ is present; or, perhaps a better way to ask the question is: when the
sacrament of baptism is performed outside the boundaries of the Catholic Church, is
some sort of communion – however imperfect and tarnished and lacking in some “internal constitutive principles” – to the Catholic Church (the Church of Christ) manifested?
Orthodox Churches have a real Eucharist in their Divine Liturgies. The Holy Spirit truly comes upon their bread and wine; the words of Jesus Christ, spoken by a priest
in persona Christi are efficacious and the Most Blessed Sacrament is confected. Jesus Christ is absolutely present and working in such a church. Does not his speak of
some sort of communion – however imperfect and tarnished and lacking in some “internal constitutive principles” – to the Catholic Church (the Church of Christ)?