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Pete_1
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If anyone has any information on how the Church arrived at st Augustines view of Blasphemy against the Holy spirit(that it is final impertinance), it would be of great help to me.
It’s just Jesus’ words in the Gospel of St matthew seem so clear, i don’t understand why the Church does not take the literal explanation.
It’s just Jesus’ words in the Gospel of St matthew seem so clear, i don’t understand why the Church does not take the literal explanation.
1 Matthew 12 Found 8
32 And whosoever shall speak a word against the Son of man, it shall be forgiven him: but he that shall speak against the Holy Ghost, it shall not be forgiven him, neither in this world, nor in the world to come.
2 Luke 12 Found 7
10 And whosoever speaketh a word against the Son of man, it shall be forgiven him: but to him that shall blaspheme against the Holy Ghost, it shall not be forgiven.
Also is the CCC Infalliable on matters of faith and morals (or was John paul II when he spoke about Blasphemy against the Holy spirit it in his encyclical Dominum et vivficantum)3 Mark 3 Found 6
29 But he that s**hall blaspheme **against the Holy Ghost, shall never have forgiveness, but shall be guilty of an everlasting sin.
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