St. Paul's stigmas?

[Mailos]

Could be Galatians 6,17 understood as Paul’s stigmas?

After this, let no one trouble me; I carry branded on my body the marks of Jesus.<< (New Jerusalem Bible)
Or should it be understood figurative?
I know that he had “thorn in his flesh”, but if we take this thorn as figurative symbol, and the Gal 6,17 as exact term… then he was the first stigmatist (and St. Francis of Assisi was the second).
Is there any other source (other than epistles in the Scripture) that can elucidate this?

 

[richardeekw]

Your “Speculative theology” is interesting; but I understand that
the intended meaning to Gal 6:17 is referred to

…slaves who bear the brandof their owner…

hence Paul (and ourselves) must bear the marks of Christ (to take up the cross daily and to follow Him)…for

“My grace is sufficient for you, for my power is made perfect in weakness.” (2 Cor 12:9

 

[Joe_Kelley]

I have seen speculation on this. However, I don’t think there is any official teaching on it.

 

[Mailos]

I think it doesn’t need any official teaching in here, because it is for the faith unnecessary at all (plus it may be totally shady because of lack of relevant sources). The core is Christ. Not any Paul.
(Romans 14,1-5)
I do not think this is theological question -because the point is only one detail of small person; NOT the Father. It is the BIBLICAL q. so it is here.
I made this thread, because my sister noticed it in the Scripture, that it also could be understood literally;; and I do not know about ANYTHING what could elucidate this. So I wanted only to ask for the explanation -if it exists.

 

[juliamajor]

I think it doesn’t need any official teaching in here, because it is for the faith unnecessary at all (plus it may be totally shady because of lack of relevant sources). The core is Christ. Not any Paul.
(Romans 14,1-5)
I do not think this is theological question -because the point is only one detail of small person; NOT the Father. It is the BIBLICAL q. so it is here.
I made this thread, because my sister noticed it in the Scripture, that it also could be understood literally;; and I do not know about ANYTHING what could elucidate this. So I wanted only to ask for the explanation -if it exists.

There are so many diverse opinions and none are really provable. Some say it was a physical problem( the most popular thoughts on that are an eye ailment or some kind of speech problem.) And there is the non- physical. .Some say,impure thought, torments by the devil. Most popular one iis that it is used frequently in the OT to refer to bothersome enemies.See Numbers33:55,Ezekiel 28:24;Isaiah10:17;Isaiah55:13;Jeremiah 4:3. These, in the end are only theories and opinions.

 

[Mangy_Donkey]

when reading this in Scripture I had just assumed that it was the scares from the numerous whipping and floggings that St. Paul received.