A
ASimon
Guest
You’re still coming at it the wrong way. Somebody else already made this point - the right is presumed at the outset, and the government can only deny the right if it has an interest in doing so. There doesn’t need to be a state interest in granting the right (although that helps). It only needs to demonstrate that there is a state interest in denying the right. It’s been tried, and there’s never been any such demonstration. They’ve tried to paint gay parents as being inherently inferior (and failed).As,
Ossified is good. I am all for ossified, fixed, unchanging, stable, firm ideas that I can count on.
When a state recognizes a marriage, it bestows upon the couple certain benefits which are costly to both the state and other individuals. Collecting a deceased spouse’s social security, claiming an extra tax exemption for a spouse, and having the right to be covered under a spouse’s health insurance policy are just a few examples of the costly benefits associated with marriage. In a sense, a married couple receives a subsidy. Why? Because a marriage between to unrelated heterosexuals is likely to result in a family with children, and propagation of society is a compelling state interest. For this reason, states have, in varying degrees, restricted from marriage couples unlikely to produce children.
Homosexual relationships do nothing to serve the state interest of propagating society, so there is no reason for the state to grant them the costly benefits of marriage, unless they serve some other state interest. The burden of proof, therefore, is on the advocates of gay marriage to show what state interest these marriages serve. Thus far, this burden has not been met.
We should not recognize gay marriage because there is no benefit to the state in propagating society.