S
Sara_Bickley
Guest
At our parish, the pastor has edited the word “man” from the creed, saying, “For us, and for our salvation, [etc.] . . . and became Flesh.”
The way I learned it, the words in bold were “us men” and “Man,” respectively.
What I want to know is, is the “old way” right and this new version wrong, or is either okay?
Before this priest came, I had never heard anything but “us men” and “Man” in the creed, either in a Catholic church or back when I was a Lutheran. (Even now, the priest is almost the only one who doesn’t say it this way – he even pauses briefly after saying “us,” to allow the rest of us to squeeze “men” in.)
On the other hand, I read somewhere that it’s just a matter of different translations, and that as long as the meaning isn’t altered, it makes no difference.
I don’t like the change, but if it’s permissible I feel I ought to go along with it.
Can anyone enlighten me about this?
The way I learned it, the words in bold were “us men” and “Man,” respectively.
What I want to know is, is the “old way” right and this new version wrong, or is either okay?
Before this priest came, I had never heard anything but “us men” and “Man” in the creed, either in a Catholic church or back when I was a Lutheran. (Even now, the priest is almost the only one who doesn’t say it this way – he even pauses briefly after saying “us,” to allow the rest of us to squeeze “men” in.)
On the other hand, I read somewhere that it’s just a matter of different translations, and that as long as the meaning isn’t altered, it makes no difference.
I don’t like the change, but if it’s permissible I feel I ought to go along with it.
Can anyone enlighten me about this?