M
michaelgazin
Guest
If the requirements for a sin to be mortal are entirely subjective (i.e. full knowledge, consent), are there any mortal sins that are objectively mortal irregardless of the sinner’s disposition and knowledge?
Now, nobody can know what is in a person’s mind or heart, however, given the definition of a mortal sin, is a mortal sin possible? Can anyone truly reject God, if they indeed know and understand Him?No.
That’s like asking if a rock(if it had an eternal soul) can be culpible of murder if someone uses it to stone someone else. It had no knowledge or control of the situation.
A sin is mortal because it is a conscious rejection of God in our lives. We can’t consciously reject God if we’re not consciously doing it.
Josh
I’ve struggled with this too. You worded it so much better than I could have. It seems very subjective. It almost sounds like as long as I don’t understand it to be wrong and the Church doesn’t specifically spell out that it is (missing Mass), then I’m not responsible. If this is what could cause us to lose our salvation, why isn’t it more objectively defined? I know that would be very hard to do, but I have a hard time explaining ‘mortal sin’ to my Protestant friends without it coming out sounding like some form of ‘relativism’ in certain instances. ’ ("It doesn’t seem like grave matter to me, but maybe to someone else it does…") I need help understanding this better too.If the requirements for a sin to be mortal are entirely subjective (i.e. full knowledge, consent), are there any mortal sins that are objectively mortal irregardless of the sinner’s disposition and knowledge?
the first requirement is that the act be objectively immoral, gravely so. All mortal sins are therefore objectively immoral. Whether or not the person is aware that the act is immoral, or the extent of the gravity of the matter does not affect its objective evil. Whether or not the person’s state of knowledge, or absence of consent, reduces or eliminates his personal guilt for the action, the evil effects still accrue.If the requirements for a sin to be mortal are entirely subjective (i.e. full knowledge, consent), are there any mortal sins that are objectively mortal irregardless of the sinner’s disposition and knowledge?
So considering that such sins are objectively immoral, that should drastically reduce the complication of the teaching of mortal sins. There should then be a list of grave sins that everyone needs to study, so as to remove at least the lack of knowledge. We do have a list in a sense, the Ten Commandments, which is objective, though to the degree that the sin becomes mortal is again subjective.the first requirement is that the act be objectively immoral, gravely so. All mortal sins are therefore objectively immoral. Whether or not the person is aware that the act is immoral, or the extent of the gravity of the matter does not affect its objective evil. Whether or not the person’s state of knowledge, or absence of consent, reduces or eliminates his personal guilt for the action, the evil effects still accrue.
For instance: a teen has never been taught that premarital sex and contraception are wrong, and indulges in those practices. He or she may not be subjectively guilty of a mortal sin, but nonetheless the evil effects of fornication and contraception will affect their life, and those involved in their actions. A woman who is raped has by no means given consent to the sex act, and is entirely guiltless of sin, yet no one can deny she will suffer evil effects of the gravely sinful action.
Yes the church has an entire branch of study called moral theology, which priest take during their formation, as they are the ones designated to guide us on these matters, both from their teaching and in the confessional. For a start, if one conducts one’s moral life by trying to tread the fine line between mortal and venial sin one is sadly lacking in the dispostion toward true conversion and growth in holiness.So considering that such sins are objectively immoral, that should drastically reduce the complication of the teaching of mortal sins. There should then be a list of grave sins that everyone needs to study, so as to remove at least the lack of knowledge. We do have a list in a sense, the Ten Commandments, which is objective, though to the degree that the sin becomes mortal is again subjective.e!
This I do agree withFor a start, if one conducts one’s moral life by trying to tread the fine line between mortal and venial sin one is sadly lacking in the dispostion toward true conversion and growth in holiness.
Like with President Clinton, it depends on what “is” is.If the requirements for a sin to be mortal are entirely subjective (i.e. full knowledge, consent), are there any mortal sins that are objectively mortal irregardless of the sinner’s disposition and knowledge?
So then, please answer my question…which of the following constitutes a mortal sin:from 2nd grade first communion preparation all through college and into the present, I was never in doubt about what constituted a mortal sin.
You sound confident in your understanding of what does and does not constitute a mortal sin. This is the confidence, if attainable, that I seek, so if you could please explain to me your reasoning for the above question, and if your answers are indeed infallible.Is stealing a car a mortal sin (considering again that knowledge and consent are present)? What about stealing just a car engine? Or what about one bolt in the engine of the car?
…
exactly at what point a sin becomes mortal. Is it after stealing one bolt? two? 15 or 30? The whole engine?
I believe your example would fall under the “general” understanding we all have. This is not the issue. The issue is in the specifics. So to go there…is it a mortal sin stealing $50 from an African orphanage like in your example? What about if the orphanage collects $5 a month for expenses? What about if it collects $5 a week for expenses? What if it collects $5 a day for expenses? How about every minute they receive $5? In which case would theft be a mortal sin? When is it not a mortal sin? When does it change from “grave” matter to “not grave?” If this could be easily determined by yourself as a second grader, and entirely objectively…please enlighten me because I remain uncertain.I agree we can all know generally what is grave matter, but when getting into specifics and details, agreement on the topic begins to dissappear.
This is precisely how I understand itWhen considered with intent according to the criteria, the sin may be objectively mortal, but only God knows for sure; humans can never know with certainty if a sin committed by themselves or others is mortal.
I’m glad you agree, but certainly do not take my word as an authority of the Catholic Church, because I speak with no particular authority other than what you make of it. (My pride nagged me to warn you of that, because then I can act like I’m actually humble and seek exultation.This is precisely how I understand it![]()
Well, that sounds pretty nuanced, but I wouldn’t advise using either one of those paragraphs in the confessional.Like with President Clinton, it depends on what “is” is.
My final answer (at this time) is that certain behavior symptoms in themselves cannot constitute a mortal sin. When considered with intent according to the criteria, the sin may be objectively mortal, but only God knows for sure; humans can never know with certainty if a sin committed by themselves or others is mortal.
I apologize in advance if you have already seen some of the thoughts below in another thread, but it fits here. You can find the definitive discussion on our mortal and venial sins in the Catechism of the Catholic Church atNow, nobody can know what is in a person’s mind or heart, however, given the definition of a mortal sin, is a mortal sin possible? Can anyone truly reject God, if they indeed know and understand Him?
Did Hitler, Stalin, or other notorious and great sinners ever commit a mortal sin? According to the definition of a mortal sin, I would argue they never truly had full knowledge of God’s will. If they truly thought their actions were compromising their chances of heaven, they probably would have stopped their atrocities. It seems like this would apply to every other situation of potential mortal sin. Does this makes sense at all?