Substance vs. Accidents Example

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Mathematically, canonical representatives are given by a function f: X → X such that f(a) = f(b) if and only if a ~ b.

The definition of the quotient set works even in situations where ~ does not have canonical representatives.

For the ancients/non-moderns, f(Lassie) = f(Rin Tin Tin) = Platonic ideal dog.
How would you apply this concept to a ring species in biology? i.e. one in which A can breed with B, B can breed with C, but C cannot breed with A.

Because if f(x) is the interbreeding group to which x belongs ==>
f(A) = f(B) = the species
f(B) = f(C) = the species
f(A) ≠ f(C) = not a species

I started another thread for this (link), and I’m curious what you think about this.

-Ryan Vilbig
ryan.vilbig@gmail.com
 
Mathematically, canonical representatives are given by a function f: X → X such that f(a) = f(b) if and only if a ~ b.
Can you explain this please.
The definition of the quotient set works even in situations where ~ does not have canonical representatives.
For the ancients/non-moderns, f(Lassie) = f(Rin Tin Tin) = Platonic ideal dog.
Maybe you can explain, but it seems that either ~ specifies a merely arbitrarily grouped set of objects (i.e., RD’s claim: there are no natural kinds) or, absent a separate Platonic ideal, each member of the set is necessarily a canonical representative.
 
So you claim, but how does this answer my question: how does modern mathematics make it possible to form (not just to describe - to form) equivalence classes without invoking some kind of canonical representative (such as a quiddity)?
In modern set theory, one forms a set from a description by invoking the appropriate axioms that guarantee the existence of a set having that description. In this particular case (i.e., quotient set construction), this involves the axiom of separation/restricted comprehension applied to the power set axiom. See here for the axioms of set theory.
 
Can you explain this please.
Given a system of canonical representatives, we can define f(x) to be the canonical representative of x.

Given a function f(), we can define the canonical representative of x to be f(x).

This conceptual equivalence establishes that f() is a valid definition of canonical representative.
Maybe you can explain, but it seems that either ~ specifies a merely arbitrarily grouped set of objects (i.e., RD’s claim: there are no natural kinds) or, absent a separate Platonic ideal, each member of the set is necessarily a canonical representative.
We must have f(Lassie) = f(Rin Tin Tin), so it is impossible for both Lassie and Rin Tin Tin to be canonical representatives.

A ~ B if and only if A and B are the same kind of thing. I don’t see where any of my claims (1), (2), or (3) has anything to do with whether the kinds are natural or otherwise.
 
Actually, no. You have water existing under one of its accidents, ice. Then, water existing under the accidental property of liquid. Then, water existing under the accidental property of ice again.
I found these definitions online, do you agree with them:
from here
Essence – it is the “whatness” of a thing, or rather the “quiddity” (Latin: Quid – what); answers the question “what is it?” – the essential parts of a material essence are form and matter.
Nature – nature and essence are almost synonymous save the fact that nature implies the proper operation of the thing
Substance: a subject of being, a proper recipient of being
Accidents: an articulation of the subject, which has its existence in the subject
Form – actualizes matter
Matter – receives its being from Form; cannot exist without Form
Essential Parts – Form and Matter are the “essential” parts of essence, because they provide the “generic intelligibility of material essence or quiddity.”
If these definitions are correct, then surely an icicle is “a subject of being, a proper recipient of being”? So why would the icicle be a substance by that definition?
 
The question of “substance” is an important one for all Roman Catholics, since we are uniquely committed to believe that at the consecration of the bread and wine, the substance of the bread and wine is transformed (replaced) by the substance of Jesus’ body and blood. Furthermore, the transformation of substances takes place without a transformation of the form and properties (accidentals) of the bread and wine. Also we know from the doctrine of the Trinity that God exists as three persons sharing the same substance. So, we can deduce that there are at least two substances existing in reality: material and spiritual. We can presume that the spiritual substance is unique to the Trinity and therefore infinite in both extent and divisibility.

So what do we say about the material substance of the bread and wine other than it is theologically different than the spiritual substance? First of all, modern science does not deal in the concept of “substance”, material or spiritual, because the philosophical principle to which science adheres is Logical Positivism. Logical Positivism emphasizes the meaning and use of language, but also defines the tenets on which modern science is based.
Thank you for your profound post. Unfortunately some of it went over my head. Are you basically saying that there may only be two substances, the physical and the spiritual, and that the transubstantiation changes the physical substance into a spiritual substance? (I don’t mean to put words in your mouth, sorry if I misunderstood. )
 
In modern set theory, one forms a set from a description by invoking the appropriate axioms that guarantee the existence of a set having that description. In this particular case (i.e., quotient set construction), this involves the axiom of separation/restricted comprehension applied to the power set axiom. See here for the axioms of set theory.
Er… right… So can you explain how this answers my question (maybe you could use your dog example to illustrate how it works)?
 
Given a system of canonical representatives,
…such as?? (Note that the phrase “*Given *x, blah blah blah” usually indicates the possibility of a merely counterfactual claim.)
we can define f(x) to be the canonical representative of x.
Given a function f(), we can define the canonical representative of x to be f(x).
This conceptual equivalence establishes that f() is a valid definition of canonical representative.
We must have f(Lassie) = f(Rin Tin Tin), so it is impossible for both Lassie and Rin Tin Tin to be canonical representatives.
A ~ B if and only if A and B are the same kind of thing. I don’t see where any of my claims (1), (2), or (3) has anything to do with whether the kinds are natural or otherwise.
 
Er… right… So can you explain how this answers my question (maybe you could use your dog example to illustrate how it works)?
I fear I’m at the limit of what I’m able to explain about my idea. The quotient set construction is a such a staple of mathematical reasoning that I’m unable to see what your objections are. Anyway, I feel that my argument has benefited from this discussion, and I feel that my statement at the end of post 68 is an improvement from what I originally had.
 
I fear I’m at the limit of what I’m able to explain about my idea. [With due respect, I fear that too.] The quotient set construction is a such a staple of mathematical reasoning that I’m unable to see what your objections are. Anyway, I feel that my argument has benefited from this discussion, and I feel that my statement at the end of post 68 is an improvement from what I originally had.
My objection is simple: I don’t see how you apply the abstract notion of quotient set (or just equivalence class) construction to the real problem of constructing the set of all dogs (for example). And you can’t explain how this is done?
 
I found these definitions online, do you agree with them:

"Essence – it is the “whatness” of a thing, or rather the “quiddity” (Latin: Quid – what); answers the question “what is it?” – the essential parts of a material essence are form and matter.
Nature – nature and essence are almost synonymous save the fact that nature implies the proper operation of the thing
Substance: a subject of being, a proper recipient of being
Accidents: an articulation of the subject, which has its existence in the subject

Form – actualizes matter
Matter – receives its being from Form; cannot exist without Form
Essential Parts – Form and Matter are the “essential” parts of essence, because they provide the “generic intelligibility of material essence or quiddity.”

If these definitions are correct, then surely an icicle is a “subject of being, a proper recipient of being”? So why would the icicle be a substance by that definition?
In general, I agree with them. But, as to specifics, it has to be remembered that “substance” has many definitions. For the Scholastics, though, the definition was specific and philosophical. Remember, “substance” is defined above as a subject of being, not the subject of being.

Would you say that a car was “a subject of being?” Or, would a completed house be a “subject of being?” Yes, they are, but, here we have several kinds of beings. The house consists of many different kinds of elements. As we get further away from a pure matter and form exigency, we have a substance, but, not an absolute substance. The further away we get, the less absolute the substance becomes.

On an atomic level, quarks would probably be the absolutest substance, or, at least a most absolute substance. An, electron, or proton, becomes less absolute; an atom less absolute still, until finally, we have “substance” only in a most nominal way. I say nominal because other accidental properties can inhere to them, so, in that light they are substances.

But, I’m not sure that an icicle wouldn’t be an articulation of water. It only has existence in the subject, water. I am going to think about it for a while.

God bless,
jd
 
My objection is simple: I don’t see how you apply the abstract notion of quotient set (or just equivalence class) construction to the real problem of constructing the set of all dogs (for example). And you can’t explain how this is done?
Not anymore than I already have. Sorry.
 
Thank you for your profound post. Unfortunately some of it went over my head. Are you basically saying that there may only be two substances, the physical and the spiritual, and that the transubstantiation changes the physical substance into a spiritual substance? (I don’t mean to put words in your mouth, sorry if I misunderstood. )
Neil,
You understood perfectly! Thank you!

I contend that there are only two substances. Each of the substances can be characterized mathematically in relation to the two modalities of space: discrete or continuous. Discrete space can be identified as that which is composed of points that are associated with the rational numbers. Continuous space can be identified as that which is composed of points that are associated with the real numbers. Since the real numbers include the rationals, in a sense continuous space subsumes discrete space, and it is more theologically sound to believe that the spiritual substance subsumes material substance instead of visa-versa, hence God subsumes the world. ( Note: God is infinite; the world is finite, the last statement is not pantheism!!)

Normally the bread and wine are formed from the material substance (discrete space).Transubstantiation implies that the substance of the bread and wine is different before and after consecration without a concomitant change in their accidentals; consequently, matter can be formed from either the material substance (discrete space) or the spiritual substance (continuous space). Catholic theology states quite clearly that the substance that bread and wine assume after consecration is the same substance from which the matter of Christ’s body and blood was formed.

Following along this line of argument: since the matter that formed Jesus’ body and blood was formed from a different substance than the substance that underlies the matter forming every other human, one can understand that Christ was a very unique human. (note: I know, I know! one doesn’t have to engage in such mystical deconstructions to believe that Jesus is God and is therefore also uniquely human, but it is surely nice to have at hand such possibilities, based on science and mathematics, to answer the non-believer’s taunts that challenge God’s mysteries, for example, read the OP on the new thread “Jesus and Logic”).

The duality emerging from the existence of dual substances also allows one to argue that: the Virgin birth was not only possible, but completely necessary; the Resurrection, the mystical body of Christ, the ecstasy of sainthood, and other magnificent mysteries. Unfortunately, such suppositions that I make cannot adequately be explained or argued in the space allotted in this forum and I have yet to have such ideas critiqued by the hierarchy, a procedure I hope to accomplish this fall.

Thank you for your positive response, I haven’t had too many of those in this forum so far, I think this thread unlike most was devoid of acrimony so far. I hope I don’t induce some, like I sometimes do.
Yppop
 
Since modern physics pretty much disregards the notion of “substance” and focuses only on physical properties (accidents). In fact many people would deny that substance is real.Consider a metal bowl. Its accidents include its diameter, its mass, its color, shape etc. Its substance is “bowl”. Now, imaging a craftsperson who uses a hammer to flatten the bowl into a plate. Now the metal has a different shape (one of the accidents), and a different substance. It’s new substance is “plate”.

Speaking as a physicist, I don’t agree with your premise that modern physics pretty much disregards the notion of substance; it may term the essential character of an object by different terms (particularly if describing it quantum mechanically). And if you go back to Aristotle’s “Physics” he treats the example you gave (quoted from the internet): * So the ingredients Aristotle insists on are: an underlying subject, a form (i.e., a positive property) and a lack (or privation) of that form. Aristotle’s examples illustrate these ingredients:*
Code:
   *1. A man who was unmusical becomes musical.*
   *2. Some bronze (which was shapeless) becomes a statue. *
*In case (a), the subject is man, the form is musical and the privation is unmusical. In case (b), the subject is bronze, the form is statue and the privation is shapeless. The subject—the man, or the bronze—persists through the change. Of the other terms involved, the earlier ones (unmusicality, shapelessness) cease to exist, while the later ones (musicality, the statue) come into existence.

These were cases of coming into being (generation), since lacks or privations were replaced by forms. Ceasing to be (destruction) occurs when a form is replaced by a privation—when matter is deprived of form. This would happen, for example, when a statue is melted down into a shapeless pool of bronze. The bronze persists, but the statue has ceased to exist.* Your example is a change of form, not substance.
 
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