C
Catholic_Dude
Guest
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I’d love to see the texts from John and take them on.
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I believe it is a Protestant invention in so far as the Protestants were the ones who systematized and popularized it. There could have been heretics before them who spoke of it, or a halfthought by an ECF, I don’t know.I have to ask CD – you aren’t one of those people who claim that penal substitution is a Protestant invention are you? You do understand that John Calvin is not the originator of this doctrine right?
The death of the offender was the good deed, and that is why Phinehas himself take the credit (Psalm 106:30f). PS fails here because an innocent person didn’t take the offender’s place. No guilt was transferred. And what Phinehas stopped was a plague which was already killing thousands and would have finished them all off had he not stepped in. Bottom line: Atonement was made, and an innocent person didn’t have to have the guilt transfered to them.Also – remember this. God’s wrath was satisfied by the death of the offender – not by the “good deed” of Phinehas. If Phinehas did any other ‘good deed’ than put that man to death – God’s wrath would not have been turned away. This hurts your position and overturns the objection that Protestants teach that “God must punish” – because clearly – we are correct. No sin goes unpunished . . . ever. God’s wrath is not diverted by foreign and unrelated goodness – it must be satisfied by justice. In the case of Phinehas and in the case of Christ – God’s wrath was satisfied by the death of the offender. .
I never denied Deut 21 was the reference, what I said and meant was that this curse was about a humiliating way to die, not a literal curse in the spiritual. I doub’t Augustine saw the curse as anything more than a humiliating way to die.Galatians 3:13 is a clear reference to Deuteronomy 21:23.
As a matter of fact – your assertion goes against the common interpretation of the early church fathers – as we read in the writings and controversies of even Augustine. Some men (Faustus) accused Moses of blaspheming Christ for saying that “anyone who is hung on a tree is accursed of God.” It is interesting to note that in defense of Moses, and even Paul for that matter, Augustine never once attempted to disconnect Paul’s application of Deuteronomy 21:23 from its original context. All Augustine established was that Christ bore our punishment because of our sins – not his own, so that Christ became a curse in our place, not in his own place.
A historical/biographical account is just what we need, and it depicts the crucifixion as a total murder. The “cup” was in reference to the fact Jesus knew the persecution that was coming up and the “forsaking” was God leaving Jesus in the hands of persecutors rather than send Divine assistence to rescue Him.You are looking into a historical account that was written in a biographical fashion. You will not find too much in the synoptics – though you will find clear references to God’s wrath – the “cup” in John, and that “forsaking” of Christ on the cross. Before you attempt to refute these short statements – if you wish, I can provide an exposition of relevant passages in John. Then we can deal with the texts head on. Just let me know which way you want to take this discussion.
I’d love to see the texts from John and take them on.
That is not relevant in the specific sense of God letting godly men suffer all the time, and it does not demand God was letting them be persecuted for any past sins (be they explicit or implicit). For example, Abel was a godly man and was murdered, but there is no indication God allowed this because Abel was not sinless.They may have been ‘godly’ but they were not ‘sinless.’
It is ontologically possible because Christ assumed human nature, and by nature man can die. God allows sin only if He can bring out a greater good, so the Passion opened the door for Christ’s immortal and Glorified Body.Christ was sinless – and death is the consequences of sins – so how does God allow Christ to die and remain just – and how is it even ontologically possible?
This is ironic because death is a punishment for sin, and if you believe Jesus took that punishment in a penal substitution sense, then you should not have to die. In fact, it would be unjust for God to let you die. Suffering and death are bad in and of themself, they are only ‘merciful’ in a secondary sense.It is often objected that if Christ suffered for us and paid for our sins – then we should never suffer. This is a reasonable objection – however – we must understand something about the nature of the suffering of believers.
The nature of the sufferings of believer is not ‘penal’ – for Christ paid that on Calvary. We do not suffer as the penalty of our own sin – Christ paid that already. But rather, the nature of a believer’s suffering is ‘merciful’ – not a condemning fire of wrath, but a refining fire of love. This suffering is actually grace – and is granted by God on the behalf of Christ.
I’ll take the quotes whenever you are ready. I would be very surprised if an ECF extended “curse” beyond a humiliating death into a spiritual curse. For it to be more than physical shame and humiliating physical death would lead to serious theological problems.Humiliation and shame were all a part of the curse – but cannot exhaust the meaning of Christ becoming a curse for us. I will speak more on this later, in reference to some interesting statements made by Early Church Fathers that were so explicit they cannot be explained away. Just let me know when you want to bring them into the picture - I am collecting statements right now that demonstrate that the EFCs held the doctrine of penal substitution.
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