C
challenger
Guest
I get the feeling this has been asked before, and it’s kind of a convoluted question, but here goes…
Acts 1:20- a successor was appointed to Judas’ office. Now, weren’t all the bishops appointed by the apostles successors to the apostles? If so, why was only one chosen here- Matthias.
Ah, but is it only the specific office of Judas in mind, and the other bishops appointed had new offices created for them? If so, are there 12 specific successors to the apostles roaming the earth today? Or 14, counting Paul and the other guy?
Now, if not, was Judas’ office as apostle only applicable through the apostolic age? If so, why is the office of Peter applicable through more than the apostolic age- or is his apostolic office not, but rather his office of chief bishop? Did, then, he hold two distinct offices?
We can postulate that, but then why would Acts 1:20 be pointed to as proof of apostolic succession?
Acts 1:20- a successor was appointed to Judas’ office. Now, weren’t all the bishops appointed by the apostles successors to the apostles? If so, why was only one chosen here- Matthias.
Ah, but is it only the specific office of Judas in mind, and the other bishops appointed had new offices created for them? If so, are there 12 specific successors to the apostles roaming the earth today? Or 14, counting Paul and the other guy?
Now, if not, was Judas’ office as apostle only applicable through the apostolic age? If so, why is the office of Peter applicable through more than the apostolic age- or is his apostolic office not, but rather his office of chief bishop? Did, then, he hold two distinct offices?
We can postulate that, but then why would Acts 1:20 be pointed to as proof of apostolic succession?