SUfficient Grace? Where?

[JDaniel]

Based on this definition of sufficient grace, that it causes us to be receptive (Something I perceive as strangely intrinsically efficacious), does the church teach that all are given sufficient grace? THerefore are all made “receptive” to efficacious grace? And are all then saved?

G!:

I think the dispute is ongoing, i.e., the Church has not made a pronouncement in favor of any of the several contentions. Until it does, we are permitted to believe either of them. There is a fourth or fifth contention, called, I believe, syncretism which is supposed to be synthesis, or sorts, of the two schools of thought: Molinism and Thomism.

One school of thought says that we are all given sufficient grace, which is a form of efficacious grace, but, in order to remain free in will, we may reject it.

Or is sufficient grace the grace GOd gives everyone, and if they respond to it, then he gives them more grace?

I believe that is correct.

But they can’t respond without prevenient grace!

Again, I believe that is correct. However, remember, nothing is definitive yet, as far as I know.

I cannot see sufficient grace in this context as anything except insufficient

Well, that would seem to be the case from our more modern perspective.

although I would be happy to revise my thinking if someone can at least tell me what it’s sufficient FOR since it isn’t doing anything…

You may choose either side. You might want to take a look at the Catholic Encyclopedia Online and read about Predestination.

God bless,
jd

 

[Gregory_I]

SO would it be heretical of me to belive that the only sufficient grace is efficacious grace, and that God only gives grace to those whom he wishes to save?

TO the rest, he may give lesser grace, to enable them to at least keep from strangling each other.

Is that a legitimate opinion?

 

[Curious_Seed]

Where in the scriptures or in the Fathers or in any of the ecumenical councils do we have this notion of a grace that is called “Sufficient”, that is, it has everything necessary to achieve its end, but it cannot be effected unless one receives efficacious grace; So sufficient grace is sufficient in name, but not in fact?

Efficacious grace is sufficient, and it is not given to all; Therefore in what sense do all have sufficient grace?

ANd in what sense does God really wish for every single human to be saved? Can GOd wish something that does not happen?

In what sense does God wish for each to be saved?

Acts 10:34