J
JeshurunPetrus
Guest
In 2 Maccabees 14:37-46 it is shown a righteous man named Razis killing himself rather than being taken by Nicanor and his troops.
Now Razis killed himself to “die nobly rather than fall into the hands of vile men,” (2 Mac. 14:42) but isn’t suicide a mortal sin that is inexcusable? Even later in the text it is shown “he tore out his entrails and flung them with both hands into the crowd,” (2 Mac. 14:46) but the text shows him as a righteous man.
So is what Razis morally excusable because he was going to suffer and be killed anyway or an error by a righteous man such as Lot did with his daughters?
Now Razis killed himself to “die nobly rather than fall into the hands of vile men,” (2 Mac. 14:42) but isn’t suicide a mortal sin that is inexcusable? Even later in the text it is shown “he tore out his entrails and flung them with both hands into the crowd,” (2 Mac. 14:46) but the text shows him as a righteous man.
So is what Razis morally excusable because he was going to suffer and be killed anyway or an error by a righteous man such as Lot did with his daughters?