Superstitions and misinformation in the Bible?

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I was reading a Christian apologetics website that claimed that the Apocrypha is not inspired because it contained superstitious behaviors. People on this website say the following: 2 Maccabees 12:43 is wrong since it deals with offering money for the sins of the dead; Tobit 6: 5-7 permits magic; Baruch 6:2 is not accurate since it says that Jews would be in Babylon for 7 generations when in Jer. 25:11, it says it was 70 years.

They keep saying that the Apocrypha is not accurate and doesn’t relate to the rest of the Bible. I believe the Apocrypha is inspired, but where do they get these ideas from and can anyone please help explain the above Scripture correctly? Thank you so much.
 
I was reading a Christian apologetics website that claimed that the Apocrypha is not inspired because it contained superstitious behaviors. People on this website say the following: 2 Maccabees 12:43 is wrong since it deals with offering money for the sins of the dead; Tobit 6: 5-7 permits magic; Baruch 6:2 is not accurate since it says that Jews would be in Babylon for 7 generations when in Jer. 25:11, it says it was 70 years.

They keep saying that the Apocrypha is not accurate and doesn’t relate to the rest of the Bible. I believe the Apocrypha is inspired, but where do they get these ideas from and can anyone please help explain the above Scripture correctly? Thank you so much.
I read somewhere that the majority of quotes in the NT were taken from the Apocrypha. Try searching the Catholic Answers library.
 
I read somewhere that the majority of quotes in the NT were taken from the Apocrypha. Try searching the Catholic Answers library.
I think it is more like the majority of the OT quotes in the NT were taken from the Greek Septuagint and the deuterocanonical books were an integral part of the Greek Septuagint. However, like some of the protocanonical OT books, there are no direct quotes from any of the deuterocanonical OT books in the NT, though a case can be made that there are some NT allusions to the deuterocanonical OT books.
 
I was reading a Christian apologetics website that claimed that the Apocrypha is not inspired because it contained superstitious behaviors. People on this website say the following: 2 Maccabees 12:43 is wrong since it deals with offering money for the sins of the dead; Tobit 6: 5-7 permits magic; Baruch 6:2 is not accurate since it says that Jews would be in Babylon for 7 generations when in Jer. 25:11, it says it was 70 years.

They keep saying that the Apocrypha is not accurate and doesn’t relate to the rest of the Bible. I believe the Apocrypha is inspired, but where do they get these ideas from and can anyone please help explain the above Scripture correctly? Thank you so much.
The other books contain superstition and misinformation, too. See, for example, Genesis 30, where Jacob employs garden variety associative magic to generate goats and sheep covered with spots.

See Genesis 44:5, when Joseph the Patriarch identifies the silver cup which he falsely claims to have been stolen by his brothers as the one he uses for “divination.” Joseph is saying there that he engaged in the occultic practice of “scrying” – looking into the liquid in the cup to engage in occultic “seeing.” Nostradamus did the same.

There are other examples in the Bible.

The so-called “apocrypha” – better referred-to as the “Deuterocanonicals” – are clearly inspired.

For example, Tobiah capturing the fish and killing it and eating it is a picture of the sacrifice of Christ and the eating of His sacrificed flesh. The fish’s oil later used to cure his father’s blindness is a picture of the grace of sacrificed Christ used to cure a lack of faith.

Another example: The story of Razis in 2 Maccabees 14 is a picture of Christ’s crucifixion, His descent into Hell, His resurrection and His distrubtion of His actual sacrificed flesh in the Eucharist from the Church.
 
People on this website say the following: 2 Maccabees 12:43 is wrong since it deals with offering money for the sins of the dead;
I see little difference between this and what righteous Job did when he offer burnt offerings for the sins his sons and daughters may have committed. (Job 1:4-5)
Tobit 6: 5-7 permits magic;
This is not magic but miracles effected through ordinary matter, such as the mud Jesus used to cure the blind man (John 9:6) or the waters of the Jordan River used to cure leprous Naaman (2 Kings 5:14) or the handkerchiefs and aprons taken from Paul and used to cure the sick and expel evil spirits, (Acts 19:12) and similar to the Sacraments (Baptism, Confirmation, Eucharist, Penance, Anointing of the Sick, Marriage, Holy Orders).
Baruch 6:2 is not accurate since it says that Jews would be in Babylon for 7 generations when in Jer. 25:11, it says it was 70 years.
7 generations could be equivalent to 70 years. Haydock’s Bible commentary on Baruch 6:2 indicates that a generation sometimes consisted of seven, ten, fifteen, thirty, thirty-five, fifty, or a hundred years. Also, 7 is often put for many or a general number, because so many days form a week.
 
Todd Easton:
I see little difference between this and what righteous Job did when he offer burnt offerings for the sins his sons and daughters may have committed. (Job 1:4-5)
Just thought I’d point out the difference. When Job made the sacrifices for his children, they were still alive. However, in 2 Macc 12, they were making sin offerings for men whom they recognized had been killed by God for their idolatry (isn’t idolatry a mortal sin?).
 
Just thought I’d point out the difference. When Job made the sacrifices for his children, they were still alive. However, in 2 Macc 12, they were making sin offerings for men whom they recognized had been killed by God for their idolatry (isn’t idolatry a mortal sin?).
But they were still burnt offerings for sins.
 
I was reading a Christian apologetics website that claimed that the Apocrypha is not inspired because it contained superstitious behaviors. People on this website say the following: 2 Maccabees 12:43 is wrong since it deals with offering money for the sins of the dead; Tobit 6: 5-7 permits magic; Baruch 6:2 is not accurate since it says that Jews would be in Babylon for 7 generations when in Jer. 25:11, it says it was 70 years.

They keep saying that the Apocrypha is not accurate and doesn’t relate to the rest of the Bible. I believe the Apocrypha is inspired, but where do they get these ideas from and can anyone please help explain the above Scripture correctly? Thank you so much.

Baruch 6.2 is different from the others, as it is not about ethics. It’s not wrong - merely different from Jeremiah. Which is one of the reasons for thinking it is later than Jeremiah’s time, and probably from about AD 100 - “thirty years” after the fall of Jerusalem; the one in AD 70, not the one in BCE 586. This is not a new dating BTW. As to the difference from Jeremiah, why can’t authors re-interpret other authors ? This happens all the time in the “real world” - so iot should not be too surprising tofind happening among the authors of the Biblical books, who were genuine authors, and not sanctified fax machines. A literary text - which this is - is not a proposition in maths, and should not be treated as though it were: for they are two very different things. Not everything in life can be treated like a proposition in maths, in which triangles must have three angles exactly, and cannot possibly have fewer or more.​

Some of the Bible is morally disgraceful. But it is part of the Bible’s revelation. Not everything in the Bible - a body of texts that cover over a thousand years, and originate in very varied places - is good or defensible. The Bible contains lies ans blasphemies, and countless crimes: murder, rape, incest, to name only three. That does not mean that we have to commit rape, because “it’s in the Bible” - only a very sick mind would think in so depraved a way. Is incest a Christian value ? The question answers itself.

If people do not throw out 2 Samuel, which contains the pretty tale of the lustful, adulterous, treacherous, deceitful, murderous and hypocritical behaviour of David, when he lusted after Bathsheba wife of Uriah, lay with Bathsheba, arranged for Uriah to be sent into the thick of battle, and took the woman with whom he had committed adultery to be his own, and lived in that state until rebuked by a prophet - if that is not an outstandingly vile story, what is ? Yet it is part of a supposedly holy book. As is the lust of Amnon son of David for his half-sister Tamar, the full sister of Absalom, Amnon’s half-brother. Amnon raped her, and she complained to Absalom, who plotted the death of Amnon and murdered him while he drunk - which to cut a long story short led to his being exiled by his father, and to his rebellion and his own murder. One can only apologise for mentioning such foul things, which ought not to be so much as named, as Paul says: the only excuse for mentioning them is their presence in a supposedly perfect book; vague assertions about the badness of parts of the Bible are too easily ignored if examples of badness are not given.

These two episodes can be found in one book of the OT - would they be acceptable in a soap opera ? My guess is that no script-writer would hand in a script with such muck in it; it would never be broadcast. Yet this is alleged to be the Holy Word of God, as though God were a pornographer :mad::mad::mad: Children are exposed to this kind of thing :eek: - which is a good reason to forbid the young to read the Bible in full until they are at least 18.

To accept stuff like that as holy while complaining of the moral problems in Tobit or 2 Maccabees, is like swallowing a camel, while straining at a gnat. The objections people raise against the morals in the deutero-canonical books of the OT are as nothing compared to the ocean of moral sewage many of the same people accept in not complaining about similar stuff in the OT.
 
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truthseeker90:
But they were still burnt offerings for sins.
By this logic, there is no difference in having a mass said for the salvation of Obama, or for the salvation of the late Saddam Hussien. This is a bit off topic, but I would suggest that making a sin offering on behalf of my living children is not the same thing as making a sin offering for someone that I realize God killed because they committed a mortal sin.
 
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