S
Salamander
Guest
Someone else mentioned it earlier (Revelation).Funny, that’s not what I said in my post at all. I don’t remember even mentioning Revelation.Not sure why you chose to quote my post and then quote someone else saying “Some say…” when that’s not even close to what I said.
Again, Paul said “sing psalms” and everyone who read Paul’s letters already knew that psalms were sung with musical instruments. In fact, several of the psalms begin with instruction of which instrument should be used!
If I say I’m going to bake some bread, do I necessarily need to mention that I’ll be using some type of an oven?
But it is not the same as saying because it says “psalms” to use the instrument. Why have a New Covenant if the Old Covenant has not passed? Why not have temples with “the Holy of Holies in them?” Or why not segregate worshipers as the Jews did in their synagogues? Paul, Peter, James, John, etc., are only writing what they have been told to write from the Holy Spirit. (See Romans 7)
“First, Walter Bauer’s highly respected lexicon, revised by Frederick Danker in 2000, indicates that even in the Septuagint (a Greek translation of the Old Testament that appeared about 250 years before Christ was born), it “is usually the case” that psallo is translated as only “to sing” (2000, p. 1096). In Henry Thayer’s often-quoted Greek lexicon, he noted that by the time the events recorded in the New Testament took place, psallo meant “to sing a hymn, to celebrate the praises of God in song” (1962, p. 675). Finally, Sophocles, a native Greek and for thirty-eight years a professor of the Greek language at Harvard University, declared (after examining a plethora of secular and religious historical documents) that there was not a single example of psallo ever used in the time of Christ that involved or implied the use of an instrument; rather, it always meant to chant or sing religious hymns (see Kurfees, 1999, p. 47).”
apologeticspress.org/articles/1774
The Meaning of “Psallo” in the New Testament
by Eric Lyons, M.Min.