In the Summa, Thomas Aquinas says that an oath is not deprived of its binding force by coercion (
newadvent.org/summa/3098.htm#article3 ), and that it is still a mortal sin to break it, but surely this is false. If it were true, couldn’t I make someone’s salvation unreasonably difficult by cornering them with a gun and forcing them to swear a series of random and complicated, but still not sinful, oaths? Also, couldn’t a person with turrets syndrome or some other mental illness which caused them to make an oath involuntary could do the same thing to themselves?
Do you mean here Question 98 Article 3 reply to objection 1?
I think that’s what you mean, but to be sure I need to ask?
Let’s break this down:
The quote is from the “reply to the objection” so it’s not something intended to stand on its own as a statement–it’s a way of showing that the objection itself is not accurate in some way.
The objection gives an example that if someone is compelled to take an oath (“gun to the head”) that the pope can absolve the person from the fact that he told an untruth while under oath. Looking only at the objection itself, here’s my paraphrase of the first part of the sentence: Not all perjury is mortal sin, because the pope can absolve from it.
Again paraphrase of the last part of the sentence: let them not be told that it’s OK to lie, but at the same time, don’t punish them for the lie.
(Remember, St Thomas’ style is to show the objection, and prove the objection to be wrong)
Now, we need to move forward again and get back to the “reply to the objection” which contains the text that’s giving us problems.
Paraphrase: coercion does not deprive an oath of its force (does not allow one to lie). Because even if one is forced to take the oath, the statements being made are still lies, and therefore the one speaking is still lying and therefore still committing a sin.
Why does he say this? The “As stated above (89, 07, ad 3)” tells us. He refers us back to Question 89 on Oaths.
newadvent.org/summa/3089.htm
Objection 3. Further, sometimes a man is compelled against his will to promise something under oath. Now, “such a person is loosed by the Roman Pontiffs from the bond of his oath” (Extra, De Jurejur., cap. Verum in ea quaest., etc.). Therefore an oath is not always binding.
Reply to Objection 3. There is a twofold obligation in the oath which a man takes under compulsion: one, whereby he is beholden to the person to whom he promises something; and this obligation is cancelled by the compulsion, because he that used force deserves that the promise made to him should not be kept. The other is an obligation whereby a man is beholden to God, in virtue of which he is bound to fulfill what he has promised in His name. This obligation is not removed in the tribunal of conscience, because that man ought rather to suffer temporal loss, than violate his oath. He can, however, seek in a court of justice to recover what he has paid, or denounce the matter to his superior even if he has sworn to the contrary, because such an oath would lead to evil results since it would be contrary to public justice. The Roman Pontiffs, in absolving men from oaths of this kind, did not pronounce such oaths to be unbinding, but relaxed the obligation for some just cause.
So, there’s a twofold obligation when taking an oath: one to God, and one to man. The obligation to man is indeed cancelled by the compulsion (the gun to the head) but the obligation to God still exists (don’t say “I swear…so help me God” unless you mean it). That’s the meaning of the commandment “Thou shalt not take the Name of the Lord in vain” So doing so is a direct violation of the commandment.
I know this sounds harsh to our modern ears, but quite frankly, St Thomas was saying “yes, it is better to suffer the torture than to swear an oath by God and then lie.”