Syele's objections to Catholic doctrines

  • Thread starter Thread starter jAlex
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
Well as a non baptise Christian (but i rather called myself) protestant. I have no problem accepting Catholic doctrine which exception to one particular canon law on annullment, intercession to Mary i don’t reject that in fact i respect her, but i prefer to pray direct to Jesus Christ. Since it is not wrong to pray direct to Jesus without intercessing through Mary.
 
  1. The Gospel writers were infallible when they wrote Scripture. And since Peter has two Epistles in the Bible, there is two examples of Peter the Rock being infallible.
Why do you think that the Gospel writers were infallible?

If the Bible writers were infallible, and particularly if it mattered how many examples there were on the basis of how many of their texts appeared in the canon, that would mean that Luke was just as infallible as Peter, John was more infallible than Peter, and Paul was much more infallible than Peter, and that last oen is interesting because it was Paul who rebuked Peter, ‘because he was wrong’ (Galatians 2:11-14). I really do not think that the presence of the texts, and particularly their volume, is a demonstration of the general infallibility of the writer.
  1. Christ is our ONE mediator. The Bible does not say He is our SOLE mediator as non-Catholics often claim.
“For there is one God and one Mediator between God and men, the Man Christ Jesus,”
1 Timothy 2:15
You could try it in another translation if you like, but the Greek is pretty clear:
εις γαρ θεος εις και μεσιτης θεου και ανθρωπων ανθρωπος χριστος ιησους.
(one for God one and mediator [of] God and [of] men man Christ Jesus)
Note especially the joining of the idea of one mediator with the sacred concept of ‘one God’: i.e., the text is saying that ‘inasmuch as there is one God, there is one mediator’. If we then suggest that there are two mediators, we shall need to start looking around for another God.
  1. When early Christians gravely sinned and repented, they embarked on very vigorous penitential practices lasting months or even years.
Do you have a source for this? I cannot recall anything about it in the C1st sources, i.e., the NT, or in the NT apocrypha. Is it in one of the Fathers?
 
Why do you think that the Gospel writers were infallible?

If the Bible writers were infallible, and particularly if it mattered how many examples there were on the basis of how many of their texts appeared in the canon, that would mean that Luke was just as infallible as Peter, John was more infallible than Peter, and Paul was much more infallible than Peter, and that last oen is interesting because it was Paul who rebuked Peter, ‘because he was wrong’ (Galatians 2:11-14). I really do not think that the presence of the texts, and particularly their volume, is a demonstration of the general infallibility of the writer.
My only concern here really is pointing out to a protestant who we assume accepts the Bible is infallible, that saying only Jesus is infallible (in some kind of non-transferable) way is going to make problems for him. That is, if the Holy Spirit can make Gospel writers write without error, there is no reason why it is impossible for him to do it in other situations.
“For there is one God and one Mediator between God and men, the Man Christ Jesus,”
1 Timothy 2:15
You could try it in another translation if you like, but the Greek is pretty clear:
εις γαρ θεος εις και μεσιτης θεου και ανθρωπων ανθρωπος χριστος ιησους.
(one for God one and mediator [of] God and [of] men man Christ Jesus)
Note especially the joining of the idea of one mediator with the sacred concept of ‘one God’: i.e., the text is saying that ‘inasmuch as there is one God, there is one mediator’. If we then suggest that there are two mediators, we shall need to start looking around for another God.
Ok. I don’t think this rules out sub-mediation, and certainly does not help the non-Catholic debunk saintly intercession. It is reasonble to take the meaning of one as “primacy” versus isolation and not have to assume it means there are other gods.
Do you have a source for this? I cannot recall anything about it in the C1st sources, i.e., the NT, or in the NT apocrypha. Is it in one of the Fathers?
I got it out of the St. Joseph’s Baltimore Catechism. It is related to the treasury of merit.
 
Dominus vobiscum

First of all, I want to thank God that we have such a place to communicate and discuss our beliefs. May the Lord grant us civility and humility in this discussion.:amen:
AMEN!
We could really do with more of that kind of thing!
As we have seen in many threads discussing the doctrine of Papal Infallibility, Catholics derive this doctrine from the power Christ bestowed on Peter in Matthew 16.
This power was also bestowed upon the rest of the disciples in Matthew 18:18, which means that no exclusivity can be claimed on this basis: thus, all the disciples would then have been infallible, and yet Peter remained quite fallible even after this.
To me, this is the moment that Christ charges Peter with his role as the head of His Church. But, as we read in the Bible, Peter’s faith was sometimes weak. But Christ prayed that his faith would be the strength of many… Christ prayed that Peter’s faith would strengthen all of Christianity.
This is true, and interesting, and I had forgotten it. Thank you.
Christ’s three-fold command to Peter, as in John 21:17, instills Peter as the chief Shepherd after Jesus returns to the glory of Heaven
Actually, it installs Peter as **a/] shepherd. There is no mention in the text of any positioning within a pastoral hierarchy.
Peter and the other Apostles each were given the ability and authority at Pentacost to begin to create a Church in accordance with the commandment Christ gave to Peter. And that Church was protected, as Christ promised in John 16… The Holy Spirit was also sent, in John 14:26 … Christ also promised that the Church here on Earth would speak the Truth, would speak with the Lord’s voice, in Luke 10:16… The Gospels show us that Christ established an earthly Church with the power and the inerrancy of the Truth of Christ.
Well, the Gospels show us that Christ established an earthly Church, and that he bequeathed to that Church a considerable amount of teaching. They also show us that he vested salvation not in his Church, nor in the disciples, nor in his teaching, but in himself:
And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again and receive you to Myself; that where I am, there you may be also. And where I go you know, and the way you know.”
Thomas said to Him, “Lord, we do not know where You are going, and how can we know the way?”
Jesus said to him, “I am the way, the truth, and the life. No one comes to the Father except through Me." - John 14:3-6
if my argument is pitiful, then sorry…I’m new:p
The argument is not a bad one, but you seemed to have strayed off-topic somewhat: you are arguing for the primacy of Peter, when papal infallibility is the question, and the one does not necessitate the other. Had Thomas been the first pope, popes could have been infallible; even though Peter was the leader of the disciples during Jesus’ ministry, popes could be fallible.

Now, I am not a Catholic because of the doctrine of infallibility. While the Catholic Church teaches various things, such as the Perpetual Virginity of Mary, which I am completely prepared to admit have some historical backing and could possibly be true, I cannot countenance the idea of claiming that the Church’s long-held belief in them proves them to be true. The same applies to any other doctrine.

Infallibility contradicts the most basic evidence we have: our own senses, which demonstrate to us every day how very fallible humans are, and how that fallibility is not removed by collecting humans into a group or allowing them to consider something for a long time.**
 
My only concern here really is pointing out to a protestant who we assume accepts the Bible is infallible, that saying only Jesus is infallible (in some kind of non-transferable) way is going to make problems for him. That is, if the Holy Spirit can make Gospel writers write without error, there is no reason why it is impossible for him to do it in other situations.
While I see your point, the mere fact that it could happen is no indication that it did. As such, the argument does not lead to the conclusion in question, and so I am just trying to clear it out of the way (if you will forgive the expression) so that we can see if there are more determinant considerations.
Ok. I don’t think this rules out sub-mediation, and certainly does not help the non-Catholic debunk saintly intercession. It is reasonable to take the meaning of one as “primacy” and not have to assume it means there are other gods.
I agree absolutely; that was meant to be more of a textual referencing note than anything else.

I do not know Syele’s opinion on the matter, but I must state that I have no problem with the idea of sub-mediation, mostly because I believe that it is a necessary consequence of another fundamentally Christian (and NT Scriptural) concept: the continued consciousness of the dead. Why would a Christian who has died not want to pray for those who remain here?
I got it out of the St. Joseph’s Baltimore Catechism. It is related to the treasury of merit.
I am sorry, but I had never heard of the ‘treasury of merit’, and Google just gave me odd things like this, which do not bear upon the topic. What is it, please?
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top