Hello everyone. In reading my catechism and then my Catholic Bible (The New American Bible) I came across scripture that I cannot reconcile with the Church’s teachings. These then makes other teachings suspect (in my mind).
- Mary’s Ever Virginity. Yes I read the comments in the Library. To me, it does not clearly reconcile the following:
Matthew 1:25: He had no relations with her until she bore a son, and he named him Jesus. The notes say: The Greek word translated “until” does not imply normal marital conduct after Jesus’ birth, nor does it exclude it. However, from my point (and I realize I am but a mortal with limited knowledge and wisdom) but if there were no relations that need all be said. The verse would look like; "He had no relations with her. (Period) She bore a son and named him Jesus. The “until” serves no purpose (in my mind) unless there was “relations”, as it would serve as clarifying “when” there were relations and that being not until Jesus was born. Does not Jesus say that he is not the author of confusion?
Matthew 13: 46-50: While he…his mother and his brothers appeared outside… someone told him, "Your mother and your brothers are standing outside…
Matthew 14:55: Is he not the carpenter’s son? Is not his mother named Mary and his brothers James, Joseph, Simon and Judas? Are not his sisters all with us?
Mark 6:3: Is he not…and the brother of James and Joses and Judas and Simon? And are not his sisters here with us?
Luke 8:19-21: Then his mother and his brothers came…“Your mother and your brothers are standing outside…”
John 7:3: So his brothers said to him…and 5: For his brothers did not believe him.
Acts 2:14…and Mary the mother of Jesus, and his brothers.
Galatians 2:19…, only James the brother of the Lord.
1 Corinthians 9:5…as do the rest of the apostles, and the brothers of the Lord, and Cephas?
Luke 2:7:and she gave birth to her firstborn son…
I guess where I am is, I know the Catholic response…I cannot reconcile it with what I read. And it troubles me.