Teaching on the efficacy of sacraments

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Good evening–I’m writing a paper which addresses, partly, the difference between sacraments and magic, and one of the things I want to discuss is the Church’s teaching that the efficacy of a sacrament does not depend on the purity/state of grace/etc. of the priest performing it. Can someone tell me where specifically I can find this teaching in the catechism, or anywhere else? Thanks in advance–Carolyn
 
Thanks for pointing me to that page–I’ll reply here as well as to the page you linked to. What I’m actually looking for is a substantiation/reference for the following sentence:

'While a priest who celebrates Mass in the state of mortal sin commits a sacrilege, the sacrament would be valid. ’

or a place to find a discussion of this issue. Any help would be appreciated!
 
carolyninyork said:
Thanks for pointing me to that page–I’ll reply here as well as to the page you linked to. What I’m actually looking for is a substantiation/reference for the following sentence:

'While a priest who celebrates Mass in the state of mortal sin commits a sacrilege, the sacrament would be valid. ’

or a place to find a discussion of this issue. Any help would be appreciated!
Click to expand...
CIC Can. 900 §1. The minister who is able to confect the sacrament of the Eucharist in the person of Christ is a validly ordained priest alone.
§2. A priest not impeded by canon law celebrates the Eucharist licitly; the provisions of the following canons are to be observed.

CIC Can. 916 A person who is conscious of grave sin is not to celebrate Mass or receive the body of the Lord without previous sacramental confession unless there is a grave reason and there is no opportunity to confess; in this case the person is to remember the obligation to make an act of perfect contrition which includes the resolution of confessing as soon as possible.

vatican.va/archive/ENG1104/__P38.HTM

CCEO Canon 698 - In the Divine Liturgy through the ministry of the priest acting in the person of Christ over the offering of the Church, there is perpetuated in virtue of the Holy Spirit, that which the Lord Jesus himself did at the Last Supper, who gave to the disciples His body on the Cross offered for us and his Blood poured out for us, establishing the true and mystical sacrifice, by which the bloody sacrifice of the Cross is commemorated with the action of grace, is actuated and shared by the Church both as an offering and as a communion to signify and perfect the unity of the people of God in the building up of His Body which is the Church.

CCEO Canon 711
A person who is conscious of serious sin is not to celebrate the Divine Liturgy nor receive the Divine Eucharist unless a serious reason is present and there is no opportunity of receiving the sacrament of penance; in this case the person should make an act of perfect condition, including the intention of confessing as soon as possible.

jgray.org/codes/cceo90eng.html
 
Here is something from the Council of Trent (see here):

“And this is indeed that clean oblation, which cannot be defiled by any unworthiness, or malice of those that offer (it)”
 
carolyninyork said:
Good evening–I’m writing a paper which addresses, partly, the difference between sacraments and magic, and one of the things I want to discuss is the Church’s teaching that the efficacy of a sacrament does not depend on the purity/state of grace/etc. of the priest performing it. Can someone tell me where specifically I can find this teaching in the catechism, or anywhere else? Thanks in advance–Carolyn
Click to expand...
scholar.google.com/
 
Just Lurking and saulsanimarum17–perfect! That’s what I was hoping to find; thank you for taking the time to post.
 
carolyninyork said:
Thanks for pointing me to that page–I’ll reply here as well as to the page you linked to. What I’m actually looking for is a substantiation/reference for the following sentence:

'While a priest who celebrates Mass in the state of mortal sin commits a sacrilege, the sacrament would be valid. ’

or a place to find a discussion of this issue. Any help would be appreciated!
Click to expand...
I think you should read up on the History of the Donatist Controversy. It was an argument between Augustine of Hippo and a sect in Northern Africa who felt that if a bishop or priest had, under threat of persecution, given over his Scriptures and renounced his faith then the Sacraments (most especially Baptism and the Table) would be invalid and any ordination from such a bishop would also be invalid and so also the priests’ Sacraments invalid etc, etc, you get the point.

Augustine argued that it is not the purity of the priest or the bishop that makes the Sacrament valid but rather the authority given the Church by Christ, and it His authority that the priest acts in and not his own that makes the Sacraments valid, even if the priest falls away or is in mortal sin.

Just some thoughts.

God Bless
 
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