T
tmyers
Guest
As Catholics, I believe we are taught that in marriage, a man and woman give themselves completely to each other and become one flesh. Please correct me if I am wrong in this belief, and in regards to the following question(s), please rectify any interpretation errors or misunderstandings that I may be having in regards to this teaching. With this said, here are my question(s):
Does this complete giving of self to other (or act of love) mean both – bodily AND spiritual giving. If so, how far/extensive are the implications?
Essentially, if the husband is ordained into the permanent deaconate, does his wife inadvertently and indirectly become ordained into this office, as well, because of her oneness with her husband? Or is there some unseen interplay here between (or regarding) the eternal/infinite essence of holy orders vs. the temporal/finite nature of marriage?
Similarly, if only one spouse goes to confession, does the other spouse receive the benefits of sacramental absolution because of his/her oneness with the spouse who actually did the act of confessing? Or on the flip side, if one spouse sins, does the other spouse receive the negative effects of that sin on his/her soul, too?
Finally, if one spouse is baptized/confirmed, and the other is not, does the one who is NOT baptized/confirmed receive these sacraments indirectly/inadvertently because his/her oneness with his/her spouse?
Any clarification you can give in this matter would be greatly appreciated. Thank you so much, and God Bless!!!
Does this complete giving of self to other (or act of love) mean both – bodily AND spiritual giving. If so, how far/extensive are the implications?
Essentially, if the husband is ordained into the permanent deaconate, does his wife inadvertently and indirectly become ordained into this office, as well, because of her oneness with her husband? Or is there some unseen interplay here between (or regarding) the eternal/infinite essence of holy orders vs. the temporal/finite nature of marriage?
Similarly, if only one spouse goes to confession, does the other spouse receive the benefits of sacramental absolution because of his/her oneness with the spouse who actually did the act of confessing? Or on the flip side, if one spouse sins, does the other spouse receive the negative effects of that sin on his/her soul, too?
Finally, if one spouse is baptized/confirmed, and the other is not, does the one who is NOT baptized/confirmed receive these sacraments indirectly/inadvertently because his/her oneness with his/her spouse?
Any clarification you can give in this matter would be greatly appreciated. Thank you so much, and God Bless!!!