J
japhy
Guest
How do I go about describing or explaining “temporal punishment for sin” to a 12- or 13-year-old, as it pertains to sin, confession, Purgatory, and … indulgences?
Here’s what I know…
“An indulgence is a remission before God of the temporal punishment due to sins whose guilt has already been forgiven, which the faithful Christian who is duly disposed gains under certain prescribed conditions through the action of the Church which, as the minister of redemption, dispenses and applies with authority the treasury of the satisfactions of Christ and the saints.” (CCC 1471)
“On the other hand every sin, even venial, entails an unhealthy attachment to creatures, which must be purified either here on earth, or after death in the state called Purgatory. This purification frees one from what is called the ‘temporal punishment’ of sin. These two punishments must not be conceived of as a kind of vengeance inflicted by God from without, but as following from the very nature of sin. A conversion which proceeds from a fervent charity can attain the complete purification of the sinner in such a way that no punishment would remain.” (CCC 1472)
“The forgiveness of sin and restoration of communion with God entail the remission of the eternal punishment of sin, but temporal punishment of sin remains. While patiently bearing sufferings and trials of all kinds and, when the day comes, serenely facing death, the Christian must strive to accept this temporal punishment of sin as a grace.” (CCC 1473)
But what are these temporal punishments? This doesn’t mean that a person who receives a plenary indulgence won’t suffer at all or endure any trials, does it? Even a person in a complete state of grace can suffer the from the impacts/effects of another person’s sin! Take Mary, for instance: she suffered despite being without sin.
Or… does that mean that a person who does suffer while in a complete state of grace (such as after having received a plenary indulgence) is suffering on behalf of the Body of Christ (cf. Col 1:24)?
I’d like to be enlightened!
Here’s what I know…
“An indulgence is a remission before God of the temporal punishment due to sins whose guilt has already been forgiven, which the faithful Christian who is duly disposed gains under certain prescribed conditions through the action of the Church which, as the minister of redemption, dispenses and applies with authority the treasury of the satisfactions of Christ and the saints.” (CCC 1471)
“On the other hand every sin, even venial, entails an unhealthy attachment to creatures, which must be purified either here on earth, or after death in the state called Purgatory. This purification frees one from what is called the ‘temporal punishment’ of sin. These two punishments must not be conceived of as a kind of vengeance inflicted by God from without, but as following from the very nature of sin. A conversion which proceeds from a fervent charity can attain the complete purification of the sinner in such a way that no punishment would remain.” (CCC 1472)
“The forgiveness of sin and restoration of communion with God entail the remission of the eternal punishment of sin, but temporal punishment of sin remains. While patiently bearing sufferings and trials of all kinds and, when the day comes, serenely facing death, the Christian must strive to accept this temporal punishment of sin as a grace.” (CCC 1473)
But what are these temporal punishments? This doesn’t mean that a person who receives a plenary indulgence won’t suffer at all or endure any trials, does it? Even a person in a complete state of grace can suffer the from the impacts/effects of another person’s sin! Take Mary, for instance: she suffered despite being without sin.
Or… does that mean that a person who does suffer while in a complete state of grace (such as after having received a plenary indulgence) is suffering on behalf of the Body of Christ (cf. Col 1:24)?
I’d like to be enlightened!