F
FrDavid96
Guest
The bishop could do that (theoretically). But until the issue of the baptism (or lack of it) is actually investigated, and it’s proven with certainty that no baptism happened, that marriage still enjoys the favor of the law.Fr. David, is it then possible for the priest to petition for a dispensation and convalidate the marriage through a radical sanation without involving the couple?
I do not see how someone’s baptism (or lack of it) could be investigated without involving the person himself. So, practically speaking, it’s not possible. I cannot see how a bishop could determine that “John Doe, who thought he was baptised at the time of the marriage, was later found to be never baptised” without involving John Doe in the process.