estesbob:
Lets start with you assertion that Jonathan and David were Homosexual lovers. "
I am distressed for thee, my brother Jonathan: very pleasant hast thou been unto me: thy love to me was wonderful, passing the love of women. (2 Samuel 1:26; KJV)
This idea that this is decribing a homosexual raltionship is not accepted by scholars becuase the language of the original (the Hebrew word " ahabah ") was a general word for love which does not specifically indicate romantic or sexual love, and There was no explicit mention of any sexual encounter between the two (their kiss could have been, as they often were, a greeting); this in contrast to the account of Davids adultery with Bathsheba, which is explicitly mentioned.
Impressive…but you missed out the rest of the cut and paste, the paragraph, which continues…
:“Most Christian scholars have therefore rejected a homosexual interpretation. Other scholars indicate that the Hebrew word in the passage, ‘ahabah,’ is typically translated as love in the context of a marriage or sexual desire, and sexuality is often indicated in indirect language.”
Your cut and paste is taken from the following page, from a side bar :
answers.com/topic/homosexuality-and-christianity
If you are ging to copy and paste, there are two things to do, cite your sources, and do not leave out bits that disagree with your argument. It looks dishonest, even if accidental, or well meaning.
By the way, if you are trusting your bible, I lifted this:
“others, such as the Living Bible fail to mention the kissing altogether, saying instead that they “shook hands”. In fact, the Hebrew word, “gadal” for “exceeding” is translated elsewhere as a reference to “greatness”. The strong minority suggest this means “until David became great” (ie. until David had an erection).”
So some bibles even leave out the mention of a kiss.
Anyway, I seem to recal that the song of solomon contains ‘ahabah’ often in a clearly heterosexual-sensual fashion.