"That's a Catholic translation"

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that’s funny. Just go back to the original Greek or Hebrew - nonD Christians love that. Problem solved and they’ll feel empowered - then hear them stutter lol. (by the way - before you do any debating with them - ask THEM to lead a prayer that God will speak His truths and pour His spirit upon your time together - He is faithful!!)
 
While these things are true, it’s not going to get you very far in talking with most Protestants. If someone said those sorts of things to me 5 years ago, I would have scoffed and told them to take a hike.

My recommendation is to take a look through a Protestant translation, and find one you can be comfortable with using in discussion with Protestants. My Protestant (NIV) Bible brought me to the Catholic faith - I’m sure God can use them to reach others as well.
I just cu straight to the chase and quote from the KJV - it’s the one I memorized from as a Protestant child, and there are very few Protestants who would have a problem with it, which gives a double advantage - I can quote it without looking, and it carries the kind of authority Protestants are looking for. 😃
 
I just cu straight to the chase and quote from the KJV - it’s the one I memorized from as a Protestant child, and there are very few Protestants who would have a problem with it, which gives a double advantage - I can quote it without looking, and it carries the kind of authority Protestants are looking for. 😃
Tim Staples employs a similar tactic using the KJV he grew up memorizing. You can tell that it ends to carry a lot of weight with his non-Catholic Christian interlocutors. When quoted with confidence, it even sounds authoritative.

In my own personal experience, using the RSV (Catholic edition. of course) has much the same effect. Being a distant descendent of the KJV, it also has echos of it in it’s cadence and phrasing and also has an authoritative King Jamish “feel” to it-- with the added bonus of being a more up-to-date and accurate translation.
 
I just cu straight to the chase and quote from the KJV - it’s the one I memorized from as a Protestant child, and there are very few Protestants who would have a problem with it, which gives a double advantage - I can quote it without looking, and it carries the kind of authority Protestants are looking for. 😃
I grew up memorizing the NIV - but I agree very few have a problem with KJV (It was almost a riot in church when the new pastor used the NIV instead of the KJV! 😉 )
 
First of all - sorry for my bad English. 😦
I see what you did there…clever…but, not accurate.

Those books were not added to the OT–they were included in the Greek Septuagint (LXX), which was the version of the OT used by Jesus and the Apostles.
This is not true. Jesus never cited from apocrypha. The first copy of LXX came from 4th century, not earlier. Jewish community **never **accepted apocrypha. But never.
In fact, there are some 135 references to the Septuagint in the NT, to the exclusion of the subsequently reconstituted Hebrew OT. Yes, the original OT was of course, written in Hebrew. However, the original manuscripts were destroyed upon the sack of Jerusalem, and ensuing diaspora of the Jews. Hence the Jewish authorities had to reconstitute the OT from the Septuagint (which did survive the diaspora). This was done circa 200 AD–after Christianity had taken hold (within Judaism), and become a force to be reckoned with. Hence the Jewish authorities, in reconstituting the OT, made subtle changes to make it less cristological. One such change, was to exclude the 6 books which were included in the Septuagint.
These books already weren’t accepted as canonical in the Jewish community. 🙂
Interestingly, St. Jerome sought to have those excluded as well–but he was overruled by Pope Damasus on this count, and therefore, those 6 books were included in the Bible, in the Latin Vugage (assembled by St. Jerome)–over 1,000 years before the reformation.
I don’t understand this.
So no, those books weren’t subsequently ‘added on’–they were in there, long before the seeds of ‘reformation’ ever took root. They are not included in protestant bibles, upon the authority of Martin Luther–who excluded them—(while also gratuitously inserting ‘solo’ before ‘fide’…), as he was drafting his own translation of the bible.
Canon of the Bible doesn’t depend on what (only) Luther said. Many church fathers denied some of true canonical books (either OT or NT). Does it mean that they are right? :rolleyes:
 
1st Tim 3:15 as “… is A (emphasis added) pillar and foundation of truth.”… Scolars say the way the old greek is worded and arranged THE must be assumed
In the Vulgate and in my German Catholic Bible it’s definitely THE AND NOT A!

1Tim 3,15 wenn ich aber zögere, damit du weißt, wie man sich verhalten muß im Hause Gottes, das die Gemeinde des lebendigen Gottes ist, der Pfeiler und die Grundfeste der Wahrheit.

Yours
Bruno
 
First of all - sorry for my bad English. 😦

This is not true. Jesus never cited from apocrypha. The first copy of LXX came from 4th century, not earlier. Jewish community **never **accepted apocrypha. But never.

These books already weren’t accepted as canonical in the Jewish community. 🙂

I don’t understand this.

Canon of the Bible doesn’t depend on what (only) Luther said. Many church fathers denied some of true canonical books (either OT or NT). Does it mean that they are right? :rolleyes:
Hmmmmm. We seem to have quite a disconnect here. Both can’t possibly be correct. My understanding has always been the 6 books WERE in the original Jewish Bible that Christ and his followers were accustomed to and taken out of the Jewish Bible later after Christianity had started to spread. The have always been a part of the Catholic Bible and only removed by the Reformers. Interestingly Luther also wanted to remove James (Epistle Of Straw) and Revelation
 
Hmmmmm. We seem to have quite a disconnect here. Both can’t possibly be correct. My understanding has always been the 6 books WERE in the original Jewish Bible that Christ and his followers were accustomed to and taken out of the Jewish Bible later after Christianity had started to spread. The have always been a part of the Catholic Bible and only removed by the Reformers. Interestingly Luther also wanted to remove James (Epistle Of Straw) and Revelation
Not to mention that the Eastern Orthodox also include the deuterocanonicals as part of inspired scripture (in fact, they actuall include even more books!), so it’s ridiculous to say we “added” them at Trent. There’s proof of the canon being laid out at the Councils of Carthage and Hippo, Trent just affirmed it AFTER Luther started throwing books out and adding words to Scripture!

In Christ,
Ellen
 
First of all - sorry for my bad English. 😦

This is not true. Jesus never cited from apocrypha. The first copy of LXX came from 4th century, not earlier. Jewish community **never **accepted apocrypha. But never.

These books already weren’t accepted as canonical in the Jewish community. 🙂

I don’t understand this.

Canon of the Bible doesn’t depend on what (only) Luther said. Many church fathers denied some of true canonical books (either OT or NT). Does it mean that they are right? :rolleyes:
  1. I never said Jesus cited ‘the apocrypha’–I said the New Testament has 135 references to the Septuagint, to the exclusion of the Hebrew OT. That is, 135x language is used which relates back to the launguage used in the Septuagint, which does not occur–or is stated differently–in the Hebrew OT.
  2. The Septuagint didn’t exist until the Fourth Century? Nonsense. Try 100-200 BC. Curious, but what source do you think the Jewish authorities relied on, to reconstitute the OT circa 200 AD, after the original manuscripts were lost during the fall of Jerusalem in 70 ad, and the ensuing diaspora–if not the Septuagint? Or did you think the originals were never lost?
  3. You say those books ‘already’ weren’t included by the Jewish authorities–well, perhaps you can tell us why they included them in the Septuagint, when they translated the Hebrew scipture into Greek–while all 12 tribes of Israel were represented-- more than 100 years before Christ?
  4. As for the part you don’t understand…just pointing out that St. Jerome sought to keep those same books out, because he drafted his translation of the Bible–the Latin Vulgate–from the same Hebrew OT reconstituted circa 200 AD–and on the same basis that Martin Luther sought to exclude them–but Pope Damasus–who commissined St. Jerome to translate the Bible to Latin, in 382 AD.-- instructed St. Jerome to include those books, because they were in the Septuagint.
  5. As for Mr. Luther–be that as it may, he was the original source for seeking to exclude those books which were already in, going back to the late fourth century–to underscore the point that those books were NOT subsequently added by the Catholic Church, but subsequently deleted, by the Reformers. (…and the point about adding ‘solo’ after ‘fide’, simply underscores that the origin of the idea to delete those books, came from someone who thought he was fit to ‘correct’ St. Paul’s writings–or should I say, correct the Holy Spirit). 😉
Pax Domini sit semper vobiscum.
 
  1. I never said Jesus cited ‘the apocrypha’–I said the New Testament has 135 references to the Septuagint, to the exclusion of the Hebrew OT. That is, 135x language is used which relates back to the launguage used in the Septuagint, which does not occur–or is stated differently–in the Hebrew OT.
  2. The Septuagint didn’t exist until the Fourth Century? Nonsense. Try 100-200 BC. Curious, but what source do you think the Jewish authorities relied on, to reconstitute the OT circa 200 AD, after the original manuscripts were lost during the fall of Jerusalem in 70 ad, and the ensuing diaspora–if not the Septuagint? Or did you think the originals were never lost?
  3. You say those books ‘already’ weren’t included by the Jewish authorities–well, perhaps you can tell us why they included them in the Septuagint, when they translated the Hebrew scipture into Greek–while all 12 tribes of Israel were represented-- more than 100 years before Christ?
  4. As for the part you don’t understand…just pointing out that St. Jerome sought to keep those same books out, because he drafted his translation of the Bible–the Latin Vulgate–from the same Hebrew OT reconstituted circa 200 AD–and on the same basis that Martin Luther sought to exclude them–but Pope Damasus–who commissined St. Jerome to translate the Bible to Latin, in 382 AD.-- instructed St. Jerome to include those books, because they were in the Septuagint.
  5. As for Mr. Luther–be that as it may, he was the original source for seeking to exclude those books which were already in, going back to the late fourth century–to underscore the point that those books were NOT subsequently added by the Catholic Church, but subsequently deleted, by the Reformers. (…and the point about adding ‘solo’ after ‘fide’, simply underscores that the origin of the idea to delete those books, came from someone who thought he was fit to ‘correct’ St. Paul’s writings–or should I say, correct the Holy Spirit). 😉
Pax Domini sit semper vobiscum.
To add one more point to your response, when No Nick said “These books already weren’t accepted as canonical in the Jewish community” I’m thinking he’s got his Jewish communities confused. The Jews who didn’t accept Jesus didn’t accept those books. However, the line of Jews who did accept Jesus, DID accept those books. No Nick forgets, Jesus is a Jew by birth and lineage, and the Church Jesus started was 100% Jewish in the beginning. Our Lord’s Church, the Catholic Church, accepted the LXX. That means those 7 books are there, from the 3rd century BC they aren’t some later addition as Protestants have been told by their leaders.
 
We’ll revisit this statement later

God’s word 1st is a person. Jesus, who established HIS Church, the Catholic Church.
  • Acts 9:31 So the church throughout all κατά kataὅλοςholos* Judea and Galilee and Sama’ria…" iow the Church is the ****Kataholos Church = Catholic Church ****The English word catholic is a transliteration of the Greek katholikos which is a compound word from kata, which means according to, and holos, which means whole. *http://www.catholic.com/tracts/what-catholic-means
Division from this Church is condemned

Gal 5:19 The acts of the sinful nature are obvious: …20… dissensions, factions …and the like. I warn you, as I did before, that those who live like this will not inherit the kingdom of God.

Those words dissensions & factions in Greek are

διχοστασίαdichostasia = dissension / division/ sedition
αἵρεσιςhairesis = factions / heresies

Luther, considered the father of Protestantism, divided from the Church of Rome. BTW, Paul’s warnings don’t have an expiration date. They applied to Luther, Calvin, Henry VIII, etc etc etc in their day as they do today, and tomorrow, till the end of time.

Rom 16:17 I urge you, brothers, to watch out for those who cause divisions διχοστασία dichostasia and put obstacles in your way that are contrary to the teaching you have learned. Keep away from them. 18 For such people are not serving our Lord Christ, but their own appetites. By smooth talk and flattery they deceive the minds of naive people. 19 Everyone has heard about your obedience, so I am full of joy over you; but I want you to be wise about what is good, and innocent about what is evil. 20 The God of peace will soon crush Satan under your feet.

Note: the word you see διχοστασία dichostasia (dissension / division / sedition) in Rom 16:17 is the same Greek word used in Gal 5:20

*Because the consequence of division / sedition, on the soul is (will not inherit the kingdom of God.) that sin is a mortal sin.

Also Paul isn’t talking to pagans with that warning. He’s talking to baptised members in the Church.

Re: your opening statement, Protestantism isn’t unified so the bible isn’t your unifying principle. You admit you disagree with many fellow Protestants over the “word”. Which means they disagree with you too. And you’re all seperated from the Church who gave you the scriptures in the first place. And you see where that sin is condemned in scripture. Do you see all the disconnects here in your very position?

Private (interpretation / opinions) of scripture with no valid & ultimate authority over one’s understanding, is a blueprint for chaos.

The HS is the one to lead the Church into all truth. The HS doesn’t lead a soul away from it. As you can see from Paul’s letters above. Paul says division is evil and from satan, not from Our Lord ergo not from the HS…
Great point, nice post!!
 
Hello. Sometimes when I’m in a discussion with a Protestant, and I share a particular verse with them, they’ll say “Oh but that’s the Catholic translation. It’s worded in favor of your doctrines.” what do I say to that?

Also, I’ve heard that the NIV translation is heavily biased in favor of n-C Christian beliefs. The funny thing is, is that sounds like the exact same thing I get told. Is there any truth to this? Thanks:)
Then grab a good old King James or NASB and show them the exact same thing.
 
Respond with “and your reading the abridged version!” - response taken from some wise forum member awhile ago

Or possibly the “who originally wrote the Bible?” Question. Or “why does your Bible have 66 books insted of the 73 we have had for over 2 thousand years?”
I have been wondering. Is the Catholic Bible translated from the Latin or the original languages (Hebrew and Greek)? If it is from the Latin, that may account for any differences in wording. Anyone know?
 
I have been wondering. Is the Catholic Bible translated from the Latin or the original languages (Hebrew and Greek)? If it is from the Latin, that may account for any differences in wording. Anyone know?
The Douay-Rhiems Bible, the Bible used by most English speaking Catholics until fairly recently was based on the Latin (the Vulgate) which St. Jerome translated from the original languages.

Since the last century, a good number of new Catholic translations have become available, all based on the original languages.Most Catholics today use one of these versions.
 
Hmmmmm. We seem to have quite a disconnect here. Both can’t possibly be correct. My understanding has always been the 6 books WERE in the original Jewish Bible that Christ and his followers were accustomed to and taken out of the Jewish Bible later after Christianity had started to spread. The have always been a part of the Catholic Bible and only removed by the Reformers.
Sorry, bro, but 6 apocryphal books are later added. They never were in the original Jewish Bible. There is no one sources for your claim, especialy Jewish sources. 🙂
Interestingly Luther also wanted to remove James (Epistle Of Straw) and Revelation
Interestingly, many church fathers denied some of the OT or NT books, and even more, some of them do not list some of the NT or OT books in their canon list. And so what if Luther “wanted to remove James?” Luther, actually, was troubled by four books: Jude, James, Hebrews, and Revelation; and though he placed them in a secondary position relative to the rest, he did not exclude them. In his Preface to the Epistles of St. James and St. Jude Luther said:

I think highly of the epistle of James, and regard it as valuable although it was rejected in early days. It does not expound human doctrines, but lays much emphasis on God’s law. …I do not hold it to be of apostolic authorship.​

OK? 😉
 
Not O.K. 😃
5 Myths About 7 Books, by Mark Shea
The deuterocanonical books are not found in the Hebrew Bible. They were added by the Catholic Church at the Council of Trent after Luther rejected it.
The background to this theory goes like this: Jesus and the Apostles, being Jews, used the same Bible Jews use today. However, after they passed from the scene, muddled hierarchs started adding books to the Bible either out of ignorance or because such books helped back up various wacky Catholic traditions that were added to the gospel. In the 16th century, when the Reformation came along, the first Protestants, finally able to read their Bibles without ecclesial propaganda from Rome, noticed that the Jewish and Catholic Old Testaments differed, recognized this medieval addition for what it was and scraped it off the Word of God like so many barnacles off a diamond. Rome, ever ornery, reacted by officially adding the deuterocanonical books at the Council of Trent (15645-1564) and started telling Catholics “they had always been there.”
This is a fine theory. The problem is that its basis in history is gossamer thin. As we’ll see in a moment, accepting this myth leads to some remarkable dilemmas a little further on…
See link below for more:
5 Myths about 7 Books
 
No Nick;10426360]
Sorry, bro, but 6 apocryphal books are later added. They never were in the original Jewish Bible. There is no one sources for your claim, especialy Jewish sources. 🙂
Sorry bro, but everytime you keep reiterating this bunk, you compel me–and others–to correct you.

One more time–YES, the original OT books were written in Hebrew–however, the originals were lost, after the Romans sacked Jerusalem in 70 AD, and scattered the Jews (Diaspora of the Jews).

The Septuagint was the official Greek translation, sanctioned by the jewish Authorities–representing all 12 tribes of Israel–more than 100 years before Christ was born. This is the version of the OT used by Jesus and the Apostles–which is evidenced by 135 references to it, in the NT.

This version of the OT contained those 6 books.

Those 6 books were contained in the earliest listing of cannon, dating back to the late 4th century–even being included in the LATIN VULGATE, prepared by St. Jerome, at the commissioning of Pope Damasus, in 382 AD.

Your claim is so easily debunked, that it is frankly embarrasing that you would reiterate it–now for the 3rd time.

Do you deny that the Latin Vulgate Bible existed??? It had those 6 books.

What you keep calling the ‘original hebrew’ OT, did not exist until circa 200 AD. At least 300 years after the Septuagint (when the Jewsish authorities couldn’t abide their scriptures ratifying Jesus Christ, as the messiah).

Pax Domini sit semper vobiscum.
 
Sorry, bro, but 6 apocryphal books are later added. They never were in the original Jewish Bible. There is no one sources for your claim, especialy Jewish sources. 🙂
Which “original” are we talking about? Moses gave 5 books. This 5-book canon was still in use by the Sadducees even in the time of Christ.

The canon of the Old Testament that the Church received from Jesus and the Apostles contained the same 73 books that Catholics continue to use today.

There was a Palestinian canon of 66 books that was put together at some point after the fall of the Temple - this happened several decades after the time when the Church received the OT from Jesus and the Apostles.

Many of the lists we find in the writings of the Ante-Nicene Fathers indicate which books they had available to their local Diocese; they weren’t attempting to convey the mind of the Church on the official canon of Scripture - they were well aware that the Bishops were still working on it.
 
  1. I never said Jesus cited ‘the apocrypha’–I said the New Testament has 135 references to the Septuagint, to the exclusion of the Hebrew OT. That is, 135x language is used which relates back to the launguage used in the Septuagint, which does not occur–or is stated differently–in the Hebrew OT.
True. But this doesn’t mean that LXX contained apocrypha, or, that Jesus (or apostles) thouth that apocrypha were inspired, or something like that. 😉 By the way, do you know how many times NT echoes midrash, or some other Jewish sources - does it mean that these books (or sources) are inspired, or equal as NT or OT? :rolleyes:
  1. The Septuagint didn’t exist until the Fourth Century? Nonsense. Try 100-200 BC. Curious, but what source do you think the Jewish authorities relied on, to reconstitute the OT circa 200 AD, after the original manuscripts were lost during the fall of Jerusalem in 70 ad, and the ensuing diaspora–if not the Septuagint? Or did you think the originals were never lost?
Read carefuly, pls. I didn’t tell that LXX didn’t exist until 4th Century, I told:

The first copy of LXX came from 4th century, not earlier.​

OK? I tallked about copy of LXX. No one could know what original LXX contained - we can only debated about this.

By the way, you mentioned diaspora? Interesting, because diaspora, generaly, **never **accepted apocryphal books. 😉
  1. You say those books ‘already’ weren’t included by the Jewish authorities–well, perhaps you can tell us why they included them in the Septuagint, when they translated the Hebrew scipture into Greek–while all 12 tribes of Israel were represented-- more than 100 years before Christ?
Who said that apocryphal books were in the original LXX? Apocryphal books were later added in the LXX. By the way, tell me this - why copy of LXX have 3 and 4 books of Maccabees? Why (even) catholics consider these 2 books as non-canonical?

Or, do you reject Prayer of Manasseh? If yes - my question is “why?” This book was part of the LXX. 😉

Further, do you reject Psalms of Solomon? If yes - my question is “why?” This book was part of the LXX.

You said that “LXX was the version of the OT used by Jesus and the Apostles.” Does it mean that Jesus and apostles used those 4 or 5 apocryphal (recognized as apocryphal **even **by catholics) books as inspired and canonical? If is the answer yes, than I ask you - why you reject those books as “apocryphal?” :rolleyes:
  1. As for the part you don’t understand…just pointing out that St. Jerome sought to keep those same books out, because he drafted his translation of the Bible–the Latin Vulgate–from the same Hebrew OT reconstituted circa 200 AD–and on the same basis that Martin Luther sought to exclude them–but Pope Damasus–who commissined St. Jerome to translate the Bible to Latin, in 382 AD.-- instructed St. Jerome to include those books, because they were in the Septuagint.
Maybe I didn’t understand you well, but…Jerome was not only one church father who rejected apocrypha. Did you know that even at the Trent (and after Trent) some catholics doubted about apocryphal books? Actually, through church history, there were **always **doubts about apocryphal books - Luther didn’t find out America (in my culture, this claim sounds like, Luther wasn’t first who find out something new).
  1. As for Mr. Luther–be that as it may, he was the original source for seeking to exclude those books which were already in, going back to the late fourth century–to underscore the point that those books were NOT subsequently added by the Catholic Church, but subsequently deleted, by the Reformers. (…and the point about adding ‘solo’ after ‘fide’, simply underscores that the origin of the idea to delete those books, came from someone who thought he was fit to ‘correct’ St. Paul’s writings–or should I say, correct the Holy Spirit). 😉
Of course, this is not true. Luther was on of the voice of true tradition. He said (regarding apocrypha):

These books are not held equal to the Scriptures, but are useful and good to read.​

This is my opinion, too. By the way, Luther didn’t remove apocryphal books from his translation. Does it mean that these apocryphal books were equal with other OT books? 😉

Finaly, Luther’s treatment of the canon is not the claim of authoritarian dogma. 😉 Maybe Luther was wrong, but he is not pope. 😃 I do not follow Luther, but tradition. 😉 I just recognized that Luther followed tradition, too, sometimes he was right, some times he was wrong. In this case, in my opinion, he was right. 🙂
 
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