The 5th Marian doctrine is heresy

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quote: searchingsoul
Hi, as a Protestant who has great interest and respect for the Catholic Church, what you have written really troubles me. How on earth can we say that no grace is conferred on man without Mary’s intercession. This is preposterous, and thoroughly unbiblical. If this genuinely is the doctrine of the Catholic Church, any thought I had of conversion is blown out of the water.
And what is ‘Hyperdulia’?
I believe most Catholics when they say that their devotion to Mary doesn’t diminish their devotion to Jesus, but I think that this teaching crosses the line.
I keep saying: read St. Paul and try to figure how get
from there to the Marian doctrines and dogmas.
I don’t see same as extra-biblical, but rather a contradiction
of the teaching of St. Paul.

Once arrive at that conclusion, and the corollary becomes:

*Because *the Church has taught what she has taught,
re the mother of Jesus - in contradition to Paul -
therefore, she cannot be infallible.

[Even when the defintion of hyperdulia is provided,
this is a separate reality - in terms of the doctrine of Mary,
Mediatrix of All Graces. To honor Mary is one thing. To declare
her Mediatrix is quite another…cf. St. Paul.]

It’s interesting to note that - the Marian Pope - John Paul II,
chose not forward the idea of acknowledging Mary as
“Co-Redemptorix.”

quote: searchingsoul
… but I think that this teaching crosses the line.
Exactly.

I think same also demonstrates that the claim to infallibility
…in terms of her teaching on matters of faith…is wholly
insupportable.

Best,

reen12 :tiphat:
 
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AJV:
Originally Posted by hurst
Mary:
  1. Mary gave the Redeemer, the Source of all graces, to the world, and in this way she is the channel of all graces (Sent. certa)
  1. Mary was assumed body and soul into Heaven (De fide)
  2. Since Mary’s Assumption into Heaven no grace is conferred on man without her actual intercessory co-operation (Sent. pia et probabilis)
  3. Mary, the Mother of God, is entitled to the Cult of Hyperdulia (Sent. certa)
hurst

By this are you referring to a definition similar to Millardio’s
Let’s step back for a moment and understand what the title, “Mediatrix of All Graces”, means. Now, from what I understand about this, Mary mediated in bringing about Jesus into the world, who is indeed All Graces. So from that understanding, there should be no objection about the title itself, since it’s only saying that Mary bore Jesus in her womb, and so she is the Mediatrix of All Graces.
Yes, precisely. That is the definition which has nothing stopping it from becoming dogma. It is already certain teaching of the Church, and is considered her “objective” mediation.

But #3, which is under discussion here, is her “subjective” mediation, and is not as clearly defined, though piously taught. Popes and saints have made reference to it…

hurst
 
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AJV:
OK, first off, it just occurred to me that I probably don’t have the correct idea of what it means for grace to flow THROUGH a person. So how does it happen with reference to (a) any person (b) Mary.
Perhaps the best way to say it is that grace is given by means of charity; love.
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AJV:
Originally Posted by hurst
The Fathers called Mary the “Go-between” (mediatrix). A prayer ascribed to St. Ephrem says of her: “After the Mediator thou art the mediatrix of the whole world” (4th Lesson of the Office of the Feast) (Ott, p.211)
Forgive my thickheadness but was this refering to her distributing graces day-by-day?
It did not specify. I think it applied to both the objective and subjective mediation. Certainly Christ’s mediation applies also day-by-day.
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AJV:
My mistake, I shoud have stated my question clearer. When I asked about the heirachy I meant the heirachy of requests as in saint–>angel–>Mary not the extence of saints, angels or Mary whopse intercession I accept 🙂 .
Making our requests can be done directly to the Father in Jesus’ name. Or to the Son. Or to the Holy Spirit. Or to Jesus. Or to Mary. Or to our guardian angel. Or to our patron saint. Or to our parents on earth. Or to friends, etc.

And those we ask may also ask others.

But eventually, it is going to reach the Father.

I think it is clear that there is a hierarchy existing, even if we don’t know the precise functioning of it.
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AJV:
But here’s another question- does a greater ‘amount’ (sorry terminology difficulty) of the “Beatific Vision” make a person’s requests more acceptable to God?
I would say yes, of course. If “the prayer of a just man availeth much” (James 5:16), then the more just the man is, the more it availeth. And I already showed that not all the saints have the same justice or merit. But that shouldn’t stop you from praying to lesser saints, because they are united to the others, and will enlist the help of others as needed. You should pray to those whom you have the most reason to have devotion to, who will most likely relate to you.
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AJV:
Finally with regard to the mystics, how can one believe everything even though they may be Blesseds or everything may not be directly contradicting what the Church teaches?
I would say that if they are renowned and have lived a demonstrably holy life, then their writings should be incorporated into our understanding of the faith as much as possible without contradicting official teaching. Sometimes mystics will seem to contradict each other. In that case, it might be better to leave it open. But for the most part, they provide good guidance. Still, we are not required to believe such private revelations.
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AJV:
And wasn’t Agreda’s book placed on the Index?
According to what I read, the writings were immediately well received, thoroughly scrutinized by the Popes Innocent XI, Alexander VIII, Clement IX, Benedict XIII, and Benedict XIV, and declared authentic and free of error, and the title “Venerabilis” given to the author.

In 1678 (13 years after her death), there was an unusual prohibition of her book that appeared in the acts of the Congregation of the Office. When it was found, no one would dare stand up for it, and the Pope annulled it in 1681, positively decreeing that the book be spread freely. The very fact that the prohibition did not issue from the Index Commission, but from a department not concerned with the examination of books, proves that something was amiss in the affair.

In fact, her writings have the Imprimatur and the tacit approval of the Church.

Now, there are other writings of “mystics” who have been placed on the Index. One should be careful to find approved sources. Emmerich and Agreda are good ones. I also value St. Catherine of Siena (The Dialogue, catholicprimer.org/catherine/catherine_dialog.pdf) and Thomas a Kempis (Imitation of Christ).
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AJV:
Anyhow, thanks for the help. You certainly chose the right path when you became a Dominican!
Thank you 🙂

hurst
 
Forgive me if this sounds a bit silly, but could Mary’s role in distributing grace be seen in a similar way to the Mass? In that in the Mass we offer a sacrifice even though it has already been made.

In some way could this also apply to Mary, in that she made that commitment to God which directly resulted in her becoming a mediatrix of graces (Jesus). So in a sense every time grace is given it is through her. I don’t mean that her act was only objective, but because she made that commitment originally she also has a subjective role.

I realize it’s a bit confusing, but I suppose it’s a mystery, just like the Mass

I’m still learning, so I’m just throwing ideas out there 😃
 
From the post on St Paul "
I keep saying: read St. Paul and try to figure how get
from there to the Marian doctrines and dogmas.
I don’t see same as “unbiblical” but rather a contradiction
of the teaching of St. Paul.

Once arrive at that conclusion, and the corollary becomes:

Because the Church has taught what she has taught,
re the mother of Jesus - in contradition to Paul -
therefore, she cannot be infallible.

[Even when the defintion of hyperdulia is provided,
this is a separate reality - in terms of the doctrine of Mary,
Mediatrix of All Graces. To honor Mary is one thing. To declare
her Mediatrix is quite another…cf. St. Paul.]

It’s interesting to note that - the Marian Pope - John Paul II,
chose not forward the idea of acknowledging Mary as
“Co-Redemptorix.” "

I HAVE THIS RESPONSE…FIRST OF ALL FROM THE SECOND LETTER OF ST. PETER, THE POPE, 3:15-16:
PAUL WROTE TO YOU…IN HIS LETTERS…THERE ARE SOME THINGS IN THEM HARD TO UNDERSTAND…

ST. PAUL’S LETTERS ARE INSPIRED BUT THEY CERTAINLY HAVE BEEN TWISTED EVERY WHICH WAY. AND THEY ARE NOT THE GOSPEL. I ALWAYS LOOK TO THE GOSPEL FIRST.

AS A MATTER OF FACT THE HOLY FATHER, POPE JOHN PAUL II, REFERRED TO OUR LADY AS COREDEMPTRIX A NUMBER OF TIMES. THIS IS NOT SOME NEW THOUGHT!
I KNOW ST. BENEDICT WROTE OF THIS A THOUSAND YEARS AGO!

AND AS FOR OUR LADY AS MEDIATRIX AND ADVOCATE, I WOULD SAY THAT THE PASSAGES DECRIBING OUR LORD’S FIRST PUBLIC MIRACLE AT HER INTERCESSION SHOWS THAT THIS IS A BIBLICAL POSITION. HE SPENT 30 OF HIS 33 YEARS WITH HER. WE CAN HAVE NO FEAR OF LOVING OUR LADY TOO MUCH FOR WE CAN NEVER LOVE HER AS MUCH AS JESUS DID ALTHOUGH WE SHOULD LOVE HER VERY MUCH IN CONFORMATION TO HIM.

AVE MARIA!
 
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levi86:
In some way could this also apply to Mary, in that she made that commitment to God which directly resulted in her becoming a mediatrix of graces (Jesus). So in a sense every time grace is given it is through her. I don’t mean that her act was only objective, but because she made that commitment originally she also has a subjective role.
I think you stated it very well!

hurst
 
Ave Maria!:

He spent 30 of his 33 years with her. We can have no fear of loving Our Lady too much for we can never love her as much as Jesus did although we should love her very much in conformation to Him.

AVE MARIA!
Yes, so true!

hurst
 
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hurst:
Yes, so true!

hurst
On the other hand, Jesus called her the “woman” when his disciples called her his “mother”, he was trying to imply that filial relationships are relative. I don’t mean to contradict the significance of Mary (I love her too), but I am not quite sure that your argument works. Maybe it does, I am just not sure how.
Tomas
 
Actually, the word used for Woman when Jesus is referring to Mary is the same word used in Genesis when God refers to the fact that there would be enmity between Satan and the woman (Gen 3:15), and again in Revelations 12:1. These are the only three times this word is used in the bible (in the Greek original). He is referring to the same woman, Mary.

CARose
 
Ave Maria!
In the writing of Vatican II called Lumen Gentium, it does not use the word. per se , of Coredemptrix yet describes this special role in other words. It does use the words Advocate and Mediatrix however. This pronouncement is doctine of the faith. I urge the reading of Chapter 8 of Lumen Gentium
vatican.va/archive/hist_councils/ii_vatican_council/documents/vat-ii_const_19641121_lumen-gentium_en.html

LUMEN GENTIUM exerpts from Chapter VIII
  1. The Virgin Mary, who at the message of the angel received the Word of God in her heart and in her body and gave Life to the world, is acknowledged and honored as being truly the Mother of God and Mother of the Redeemer. Redeemed by reason of the merits of her Son and united to Him by a close and indissoluble tie, she is endowed with the high office and dignity of being the Mother of the Son of God, by which account she is also the beloved daughter of the Father and the temple of the Holy Spirit. Because of this gift of sublime grace she far surpasses all creatures, both in heaven and on earth….
  2. The Father of mercies willed that the incarnation should be preceded by the acceptance of her who was predestined to be the mother of His Son, so that just as a woman contributed to death, so also a woman should contribute to life….Thus Mary, a daughter of Adam, consenting to the divine Word, became the mother of Jesus, the one and only Mediator. Embracing God’s salvific will with a full heart and impeded by no sin, she devoted herself totally as a handmaid of the Lord to the person and work of her Son, under Him and with Him, by the grace of almighty God, serving the mystery of redemption……
  3. This union of the Mother with the Son in the work of salvation is made manifest from the time of Christ’s virginal conception up to His death….the Blessed Virgin advanced in her pilgrimage of faith, and faithfully persevered in her union with her Son unto the cross, where she stood, in keeping with the divine plan…
60….The maternal duty of Mary toward men in no wise obscures or diminishes this unique mediation of Christ, but rather shows His power. For all the salvific influence of the Blessed Virgin on men originates, not from some inner necessity, but from the divine pleasure. It flows forth from the superabundance of the merits of Christ, rests on His mediation, depends entirely on it and draws all its power from it. In no way does it impede, but rather does it foster the immediate union of the faithful with Christ…the virgin Mother of the Redeemer, and above all others and in a singular way the generous associate and humble handmaid of the Lord.

62…Taken up to heaven she did not lay aside this salvific duty, but by her constant intercession continued to bring us the gifts of eternal salvation….Therefore the Blessed Virgin is invoked by the Church under the titles of Advocate, Auxiliatrix, Adjutrix, and Mediatrix.(16*) This, however, is to be so understood that it neither takes away from nor adds anything to the dignity and efficaciousness of Christ the one Mediator.(17*)
  1. Placed by the grace of God, as God’s Mother, next to her Son, and exalted above all angels and men, Mary intervened in the mysteries of Christ and is justly honored by a special cult in the Church.
 
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levi86:
Catholic29,

I’m as Catholic friendly as they come, and I chose this church over many. But this will put Mary on par with God; I really don’t see how Protestants could see it any other way.

But I think many Catholics may just accept it because of our love for Our Lady.
That’s simply not true. All that is God’s from nature is Mary’s through grace. Without Jesus, Mary would have been just a lady. It is silly to say that because God HAS CHOSEN HER to be a mediator between her son and us, that it puts her on par with Himself. He is the one that gave her this authority. How could it possibly usurp His power if He is the giver of it? That’s like saying “I don’t need to confess my sins to a priest, I can go straight to God”. My response is always, “Okay, you do it your way, I’ll do it God’s way”. It’s not out of necessity, but out of His manifest will. Mary takes part in our salvation just like we take part in other people’s salvation, through prayer. She just does it on a much larger scale, and much more perfectly. It really is not as big of a deal as some people make it sound.

Also, it is important to remember that “co” does not mean equal in any sense of the term. 1 Cor 3:9 says, “9For we are God’s co-workers; you are God’s field, God’s building.” Romans 8:17 says we are “co-heirs” with Christ, but these don’t make us equal to Him, or mean that we merited salvation in any way. It just means that we share in the responsibility and reward. The same applies to these two terms (co-redemptrix and co-mediatrix). Besides, who can deny that Mary participated in Christ’s redemption in a wholely unique way? She deserves this hyperdulia, or extreme honor, because God chose her.
 
There are four Marian dogmas:
  1. Divine Motherhood - Council of Ephesus 431
  2. Mary’s Virginity
    a) Virginal Conception through the Spirit - Baptismal symbols since 3rd century.
    b) Perpetual Virginity (virginal birth and no other children) - Baptismal symbols since 4th century (first in eastern church)
  3. Immaculate Conception (Mary’s freedom from original sin) - Puis IX, 1854
  4. Mary’s Assumption (body and soul) into heaven - Pius XII, 1950
udayton.edu/mary/questions/yq/yq186.html

It is important to note that the prefix “co” in the title Coredemptrix does not mean “equal to” but rather “with”, coming from the Latin word cum. The Marian title Coredemptrix never places Mary on a level of equality with her Divine Son, Jesus Christ. Rather it refers to Mary’s unique human participation which is completely secondary and subordinate to the redeeming role of Jesus, who alone is true God and true Man.

and it is also important when focusing on a specific aspect of doctrine not to separate ourselves from the overall integrity of the general teachings and doctines of christ and his apostles.

veneration means to respect and to take care of ; negatively it means not to profane, which is in opposition to the iconclastism of the 5th century. The 2nd council of Nicea , by making a clear distinction between divine worship and veneration , in effect forbid the worship of images but at the same time forbiding thier profanation

communion of saints
in mat 19. 28 jesus said… when the son of man will sit on his glorious throne , you also shall sit upon twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of israel.

luke 20.34 those who are considered worthy to attain to that age and the resurection… for they cannot even die anymore. because they are like the angels and are sons of God.

mat 6.20 …store up for yourselves treasures in heaven.

Revelation 7.14 and 8.3

then there is original sin" cursed is the ground because of you in toil you will eat of it"…the entire bible must be read within this context. Generally God made and created man in his image.
God saw all that he had made…It was good
Specifically the Lord God formed man of the dust from the ground and beathed into his nostrils the Breath of Life…

But something went terribly wrong.
God created things good , Evil is the perversion of good.
generation after generation has lived under this Curse. That is until the word became flesh (or human )and Mary ,the theotokos, carried God in her womb providing the genetic matter for his body. The Curse has been broken and humanity can choose the path of life or the path of death. we must renounce and reject utterly the works and temptations of the evil one, in profession and in action. The effects of The Curse will begin to fade but we must follow the way of our Lord. The way of the Cross.

The Litanies to the Mother of God usually refer to illustrations of a state of Sanctifying Grace before human nature became corrupted and wounded; the birth of Christ happened because he is the fruit of her womb. this is kind of like a new creation just like our first parents were created without sin but caused the Fall of humanity, the LORD God himself though Mary has broken this chain of inherited sin and we have hope to rise again.
This is not heresy.
 
An article that might help

God permitted the redemption of mankind to depend on the free-will decision of a human being. Whether or not we would have a mediator was dependent on Mary’s “yes.” Had there been no “yes” from Mary, there would have been no mediator.
Link to above article
Pax tecum,
The angel said “And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name JESUS.” That was not a yes or no question. Mary had no choice - she had to go along with God’s plan. Do you actually believe that God’s salvation could have been stymied by by Mary, if she opted to?
 
The angel said “And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name JESUS.” That was not a yes or no question. Mary had no choice - she had to go along with God’s plan. Do you actually believe that God’s salvation could have been stymied by by Mary, if she opted to?
Why not? God’s plan is to save each and every human being - and yet not every person IS saved. Why? Because some do indeed reject God’d proffered help and effectively stymie his plan, which is to save them.

Of course Mary was equally free-willed and could, at least in theory, have said no. Just as we all on occasion say no to God. She was not a robot. What would have happened in the event that she said no is uncertain.

As a practical matter, of course, she was given an enormous amount of divine help, including the Immaculate Conception, to remove from her all original sin and inclination towards sin. But remember Adam and Eve weren’t born with original sin either, and still managed to fall victim to personal sin.

Mary’s own character and behaviour was such that she co-operated perfectly and willingly (actively and consentually) with the gifts God gave her, building on his foundation if you will.
 
Why not? God’s plan is to save each and every human being - and yet not every person IS saved. Why? Because some do indeed reject God’d proffered help and effectively stymie his plan, which is to save them.

Of course Mary was equally free-willed and could, at least in theory, have said no. Just as we all on occasion say no to God. She was not a robot. What would have happened in the event that she said no is uncertain.

As a practical matter, of course, she was given an enormous amount of divine help, including the Immaculate Conception, to remove from her all original sin and inclination towards sin. But remember Adam and Eve weren’t born with original sin either, and still managed to fall victim to personal sin.

Mary’s own character and behaviour was such that she co-operated perfectly and willingly (actively and consentually) with the gifts God gave her, building on his foundation if you will.
Correct me if I’m wrong, but I think free will is irrelevant here. Mary was not given a choice - she had no choice. Unless you consider the act of disobedience by way of aborting the pregnancy.
 
Correct me if I’m wrong, but I think free will is irrelevant here. Mary was not given a choice - she had no choice. Unless you consider the act of disobedience by way of aborting the pregnancy.
Free will is totally relevant. Mary said ‘be it done unto me according to your word’ - in other words she formally gave her consent. Why would she say such words if she was merely being told what was a 100% sure thing?

Now read your Bible - God is usually in the habit of expressing himself in terms of orders. He ordered Adam and Eve not to eat the apple, ordered Israel not to worship false gods (along with all the other commandemnts), ordered Jonah to go to Nineveh. Often he states consequences either of obedience or disobedience.

Guess what - Adam and Eve were still permitted to eat the apple, Israel were permitted to worship false gods, we are permitted to break all the commandments, and Jonah got to at least try once to run away from going to Nineveh.

He is not in the habit of literally forcing anyone to follow his commands if their own will is not to obey. That’s why Mary said ‘be it done unto me’ - she did indeed have to give permission before His will could be done.
 
Free will is totally relevant. Mary said ‘be it done unto me according to your word’ - in other words she formally gave her consent. Why would she say such words if she was merely being told what was a 100% sure thing?

Now read your Bible - God is usually in the habit of expressing himself in terms of orders. He ordered Adam and Eve not to eat the apple, ordered Israel not to worship false gods (along with all the other commandemnts), ordered Jonah to go to Nineveh. Often he states consequences either of obedience or disobedience.

Guess what - Adam and Eve were still permitted to eat the apple, Israel were permitted to worship false gods, we are permitted to break all the commandments, and Jonah got to at least try once to run away from going to Nineveh.

He is not in the habit of literally forcing anyone to follow his commands if their own will is not to obey. That’s why Mary said ‘be it done unto me’ - she did indeed have to give permission before His will could be done.
I value your opinion. However, I still think that the annunciation is more aligned with God telling Abraham about Sarah’s pregnancy (Gen 17:19). There is no free will / choice involved here, unlike when God told Abram to migrate (Gen 12:1).

At any rate, I don’t agree that God’s salvation depend on Mary’s obedience. Hypothetical disobedience on Mary’s part couldn’t have nullified prophecies on the Messiah.

Consider these examples: God didn’t let Moses lead Israel to the promised land, but chose Joshua instead. King Saul disobeyed God, so He annointed David instead. God didn’t let David build the Temple, but chose his son, Solomon instead.

If Mary had disobeyed God, He would have chosen someone else, quite possibly even Mary’s own offspring.

Remember what Jesus said to the Pharisee when they asked him to stifle the adoring crowd:

But He answered and said to them, “I tell you that if these should keep silent, the stones would immediately cry out.” (Luke 19:40).
 
I value your opinion. However, I still think that the annunciation is more aligned with God telling Abraham about Sarah’s pregnancy (Gen 17:19). There is no free will / choice involved here, unlike when God told Abram to migrate (Gen 12:1).

At any rate, I don’t agree that God’s salvation depend on Mary’s obedience. Hypothetical disobedience on Mary’s part couldn’t have nullified prophecies on the Messiah.

Consider these examples: God didn’t let Moses lead Israel to the promised land, but chose Joshua instead. King Saul disobeyed God, so He annointed David instead. God didn’t let David build the Temple, but chose his son, Solomon instead.

If Mary had disobeyed God, He would have chosen someone else, quite possibly even Mary’s own offspring.

Remember what Jesus said to the Pharisee when they asked him to stifle the adoring crowd:

But He answered and said to them, “I tell you that if these should keep silent, the stones would immediately cry out.” (Luke 19:40).
Well it’s quite possible Christ could have come to us through another woman - call her Jane Doe for argument’s sake.

I totally disagree, however, that Mary had no free will in the matter.

Remember that Abraham and Sarah were childless for decades and had been looking to have and doubtless praying fervently for a child. Same with Zechariah and Elizabeth, Samuel’s mother etc.

No question with these people but that they would rejoice and happily and freely accept God’s gift of a child. The purpose of God’s messengers in these cases was merely to tell them that their wishes and prayers had been granted. There was no need at all to ask their consent to an event that they themselves had requested.

Mary was an unmarried (though betrothed) girl. Not looking to have a child at that particular point. In fact greatly inconvienced when she did become pregnant, being that Joseph was offended enough to consider divorce and all. Certainly Mary never dreaming of being chosen to bear the Son of God, nor begged God for a child. Big difference.

And so, if Christ had come through Jane Doe, then Jane Doe, being the one who had exercised her free-will to say yes to the unique and incredibly difficult task of being the Mother of God, our saviour, would be arguably entitled to be honoured, called Co-redemptrix, Mediatrix of Graces etc etc.
 
Correct me if I’m wrong, but I think free will is irrelevant here. Mary was not given a choice - she had no choice. Unless you consider the act of disobedience by way of aborting the pregnancy.
She had a choice just as we all have a choice. It only sounds to you like she didn’t because God already knew that she would say yes, so He didn’t have to frame the matter as a question.
 
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