The ability of Christians to sin and the Bible

[Ioana]

Essentially I was talking with a Protestant friend and I find the following two verses hard to reconcile with each other and Catholic teaching. Upon further research, I found it has something to do with Greek tenses but I thought I’d ask somebody here who might know more. The two verses I am talking about are:

Hebrews 10:26 vs 1 John 3:9

Thank you

 

[De_Maria]

Essentially I was talking with a Protestant friend and I find the following two verses hard to reconcile with each other and Catholic teaching. Upon further research, I found it has something to do with Greek tenses but I thought I’d ask somebody here who might know more. The two verses I am talking about are:

Hebrews 10:26 vs 1 John 3:9

Thank you

Hebrews 10:26 For if we sin wilfully after that we have received the knowledge of the truth, there remaineth no more sacrifice for sins,

This verse is about the Mass. If you read Heb 10:25-31, you’ll see that God is offended by those who do not come to the Assembly, or the Mass. Basically explains why it is a mortal sin to skip the Mass.

1 John 3:9 Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.

When I read St. John’s writings, I keep in mind that this is the beloved Disciple. St. John obviously had a capacity for love of God that has rarely been equaled by any other mortal. So, let’s look at the context:

3 And every man that hath this hope in him purifieth himself, even as he is pure.

He is talking about people who have put their entire hope in God, so much so, that they will do their best to remain pure.

4 Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.

he makes sure that we know that sin is any transgression of the Ten Commandments. Disobeying God, is transgression of the first Commandment. Therefore, at this point, it is completely in line with Heb 10:25-31.

5 And ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins; and in him is no sin.

God became man to take away our sins and as a man, He did not sin.

6 Whosoever abideth in him sinneth not: whosoever sinneth hath not seen him, neither known him.

Those who abide in Christ, will not sin. But those who do sin, do so because they don’t know Him.

Interestingly, this ties us back to the Mass. Because Jesus said:

John 6:56 He that eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, dwelleth in me, and I in him.

The word dwell, is also translated, abide. So, it is those who attend the Mass and participate in the Eucharist, who abide in Christ. Those who don’t, sin in not doing so. And they don’t attend the Mass because they don’t know Christ.

7 Little children, let no man deceive you: he that doeth righteousness is righteous, even as he is righteous.

8 He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil.

Those who, after knowing Christ, have chosen to remain in sin, are the offspring of Satan.

9 Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.

But those who are truly born of God and abide in Christ, will not commit sin.

I hope that helps.

 

[Ioana]

So then if we keep sinning (that is the reason why we go to confession) then does that meant we don’t know Christ?

 

[Lain]

This is the problem with proof texting, verses are taken out of context without considering what’s around them.

If you read Hebrews 10, it’s all about persevering in the faith. The verses you reference refer to those who know the truth and deliberately reject it to carry on living a life of sin. For those who knowingly and willingly “reject the Son of God”, there is no further help, so the author encourages the readers not to “shrink back and be destroyed” but “have faith and be saved” v39.

The John passage says the same - those who choose to live a life of sin cannot pretend to be Christian, because a Christian cannot love sin. John is clearly not saying that a Christian can never sin again because “if we say we have no sin we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us” (1 Jn 1:8) and we must always seek God’s “forgiveness of our sins” (1 Jn 1:9).

So neither verse is incompatible with the other, nor with Catholic teaching.

 

[Nelka]

Ver. 26. If we sin wilfully. He speaks of the sin of wilful apostacy from the known truth; after which, as we cannot be baptized again, we cannot expect to have that abundant remission of sins, which Christ purchased by his death, applied to our souls in that ample manner as it is in baptism; but we have rather all manner of reason to look for a dreadful judgment; the more, because apostates from the know truth seldom or never have the grace to return to it. (Challoner)

Ver. 9. Doth not commit sin. That is, as long as he keepeth in himself this seed of grace, and this divine generation, by which he is born of God. But then he may fall from this happy state by the abuse of his free-will, as appears from Romans xi. 20, 21, 22.; 1 Corinthians ix. 27. and x. 12.; Philippians ii. 12.; Apocalypse iii. 11. (Challoner) — He cannot sin, because he is born of God. The meaning of this can be no more, than that he cannot sin as long as the seed of grace remaineth in him, and as long as he is the adoptive son of God. But it is evident he may fall from this happy condition, and from the grace of God, otherwise St. John would not so often in this epistle have exhorted them not to sin. (Witham)

 

[fhansen]

Essentially I was talking with a Protestant friend and I find the following two verses hard to reconcile with each other and Catholic teaching. Upon further research, I found it has something to do with Greek tenses but I thought I’d ask somebody here who might know more. The two verses I am talking about are:

Hebrews 10:26 vs 1 John 3:9

Thank you

Most Protestants believe, based on their interpretation of the bible taken in its larger context, that we will, indeed, continue to struggle with sin, sometimes failing, after conversion. But, speaking generally, if it’s not a struggle, if we’re not striving towards perfection and improving, then we’re no longer on the path.

 

[jcrichton]

Hi!

Though it’s all Greek/Aramaic/Hebrew to me, I find that non-Catholics get hanged up on etymology and eisegesis–here’s how simply it is:

6 If we claim to have fellowship with him and yet walk in the darkness, we lie and do not live out the truth. 7 But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship with one another, and the blood of Jesus, his Son, purifies us from all sin. 8 If we claim to be without sin, we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us. 9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just and will forgive us our sins and purify us from all unrighteousness. 10 If we claim we have not sinned, we make him out to be a liar and his word is not in us. (1 St. John 1)

Here’s the cut and paste of it:

fellowship with him and yet walk in the darkness

Fellowship requires a relationship–St. John 15:1-10; it is not that we can Walk in the Light on our own accord; it is by Abiding in Christ that we are able to Walk in the Light (St. John 1:10-13).

the blood of Jesus, his Son, purifies us from all sin

Note that it is those who are in Fellowship whose sins He purifies not have purified!

If we confess our sins, will forgive us our sins and purify,

It is an on-going process and not a done deal, can’t sin anymore Grace/Blessing.

Maran atha!

Angel